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Anatomical Pathology

Study Mode • 386 Questions

Q1.

A major prognostic factor for breast cancer is

Q2.

A child is born with a single functional wild type allele of a tumor suppressor gene. At the age of five the remaining normal allele is lost through a point mutation. As a result, the ability to inhibit cell cycle progression until the cell is ready to divide is lost which leads to the child developing a tumour. Which of the following gene mutation most likely explains this tumour?

Q3.

Mutation is best described as

Q4.

Concerning hydronephrosis:

Q5.

Concerning lamina densa:

Q6.

Following healing of a burns wound of the elbow, 12 year old Gbenga is unable to fully stretch out his elbow. Which of these apply?

Q7.

Labile cells:

Q8.

A 27 year old man was rushed to the emergency room because of weakness and breathlessness following bouts of haemoptysis, gross haematuria, peripheral edema and elevated blood pressure. What is he most likely suffering from?

Q9.

Concerning reflux nephropathy in children under five years, one of the following is correct:

Q10.

A road traffic accident victim whose remains were deposited in UPTH mortuary is expected to:

Q11.

An 89 year old man died from complications of prolonged systemic hypertension. At autopsy, his kidneys were slightly shrunken and capsules stripped with difficulty to reveal a coarse granularity of the cortical surface. This kidney lesion is best described as?

Q12.

Concerning uterine leiomyoma, one of the following is not correct

Q13.

In addition to the phenotypic abnormalities and the mental retardation in Down syndrome, some other clinical features are commonly associated, except:

Q14.

Margination in acute inflammation involves the following except

Q15.

An example of low grade vascular malignancy is

Q16.

The following features pertaining to autosomal dominant diseases are correct except:

Q17.

A 35-year-old woman with pregnancy symptoms is said to have a uterine size that is too large for gestational age. The ultrasound findings show a snowstorm appearance. She passes grape-like vesicles per vagina. She most likely has a?

Q18.

A child is described as having Chronic granulomatous disease (CGD). This means

Q19.

Cells from parenchymal organs such as liver, kidney, and pancreas are categorized as:

Q20.

The spleen

Q21.

Splenic function:

Q22.

Erythrocyte membrane:

Q23.

Mr. X with blood type A marries Mrs. Y with blood type AB, which blood type cannot be seen in their offspring?

Q24.

Sickle cell anaemia means the individual

Q25.

One of these could give a definitive diagnosis of Sickle cell anaemia

Q26.

In FAB classification of Acute myeloid leukemia (AML) M4 represents

Q27.

In one of these, nucleo-cytoplasmic asynchrony could be a major feature of nucleated red cells

Q28.

Megaloblastic anaemia will not be caused by one of these

Q29.

One of these is not a peripheral blood film picture of megaloblastic anaemia

Q30.

One of these is a description of petechiae

Q31.

Immune thrombocytopenic purpura could be caused by

Q32.

Alpha granules of platelets contain

Q33.

One of these is not a cause of microcytic hypochromic anaemias

Q34.

Which of the following is wrongly matched

Q35.

The following is not a type of brain herniation

Q36.

A middle aged woman presented with melena stool and loss of weight. A colonoscopy shows aphthous ulcers with a cobblestone appearance occurring at random sites in the rectum and colon with areas of stricture formation. Histology revealed ONLY chronic colitis extending to the muscle layer and serosa. The patient most likely has?

Q37.

The following organisms implicated in carcinogenesis are incorrectly matched:

Q38.

A 25 year old female presents with recurrent episodes of abdominal pain associated with bloating. The pain is relieved on defecation. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Q39.

One of the following is false concerning these tumours

Q40.

Concerning causes of chronic hepatitis, which of the following is not properly matched?

Q41.

A 40 year old man who had complained of hematuria and feeling of weighty, dragging sensation on the lumbar area of the abdomen was upon investigation found to have laboratory evidence of azotemia. What is your best clinical diagnosis?

Q42.

A middle aged man presented with polyuria, polydipsia and polyphagia. Histology done showed insulitis. What is the diagnosis?

Q43.

Which of the following will qualify as a Choristoma?

Q44.

Which of the following is important in staging of malignancies?

Q45.

A 40 year old female had a road traffic accident. She went unconscious immediately. When her relatives met her at the hospital, she was talking but after some time she tilted back into unconsciousness. A possible explanation to this is that she had:

Q46.

A 36-year-old woman has oliguria and blood pressure 170/112 mm Hg and peripheral edema. Urinalysis shows protein 1+ and blood 3+. Urine microscopic analysis shows RBCs and RBC casts. Her serum complement C1q, C3, and C4 are decreased. Immunofluorescence microscopy of renal biopsy shows a granular pattern of staining with antibody to C3. Which of the following types of hypersensitivity reactions is most likely causing her renal disease?

Q47.

The most common cause of bloody nipple discharge is

Q48.

One of the following is true of Mönckeberg medial sclerosis

Q49.

A middle aged man presented with dysphagia which affects both solid foods and liquids equally. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Q50.

An example of a mixed tumour is

Q51.

Compared to normal adult somatic cells, a malignant neoplasm displays high levels of telomerase which would most likely cause?

Q52.

A 33-year-old pregnant woman presents with dyspnoea on exertion, orthopnoea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea, and bilateral pedal edema. She has no history or signs of coronary artery disease, hypertension, or valvular disease. Echocardiography reveals cardiomegaly, with four-chamber hypertrophy and dilation. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Q53.

A study of renal disease identifies patients with greater than 3.5 g of protein in a 24-hour urine collection, but no RBCs or WBCs. Dysfunction involving which of the following cells is most likely to be responsible for proteinuria?

Q54.

A patient was told he had a benign peripheral nerve sheath neoplasm which could be any of the following.

Q55.

A patient was diagnosed with prostate cancer. His histology showed small discrete glands with some intervening stroma in the majority of places with another small focus showing sheets of epithelial cells. His International Society of Urology and Pathology (ISUP) Grade is likely

Q56.

A hospital based autopsy is applicable in one of the following cases:

Q57.

One of the following explains the manner of death

Q58.

Prostate cancer defining features in histology

Q59.

Which of the following is not a risk factor for Cervical carcinoma?

Q60.

Concerning aetiopathogenesis of cervical cancer, which of the underlisted is incorrect?

Q61.

Which of the underlisted options is most correct about squamous cell carcinoma of the cervix?

Q62.

A 19-year-old female undergraduate student had lumpectomy of right breast lump and histology reports that there is encapsulated lesion which is composed of proliferating ducts and stroma, with compression of the ducts into slit-like spaces by the stroma. The stroma also shows myxoid features. What is the diagnosis?

Q63.

A fungating breast lesion on the left upper outer quadrant of the breast in a 65-year-old grandmother is best diagnosed with:

Q64.

A 30-year-old mother of two reported a growth on the left side of the breast. Her lumpectomy histology showed significantly dysplastic epithelial cells but with intact basement membrane. The pathologic diagnosis is most likely?

Q65.

Concerning gynaecomastia:

Q66.

Which of the following ovarian tumour is associated with endometrial cancer?

Q67.

Which of the underlisted is not correct about breast cancer?

Q68.

A 53-year-old father of 5 children had endoscopy and biopsy of gastric mucosa. The histology of the tissue showed lamina propria which is expanded by infiltrates of chronic inflammatory cells, especially lymphocytes with focal follicle formation. Which of the underlisted is correct about the diagnosis of the Pathologist?

Q69.

What type of anemia is associated with autoimmune gastritis.

Q70.

Which of these is incorrect about pyogenic osteomyelitis?

Q71.

The predisposing conditions for tuberculosis osteomyelitis do not include:

Q72.

A 56-year-old man with significant history of hypertensive cardiovascular disease presented in an unconscious state. Further evaluation revealed positive history of projectile vomiting and headache. Examination findings included a Blood pressure reading of 180/100mmHg, irregular respiration and papilloedema. Brain CT scan showed an area with findings consistent with cerebral infarction. The likely cause of raised intracranial pressure in the patient is:

Q73.

During an autopsy procedure, examination of the brain showed increased weight and areas of bleeding in the pons which were identified as duret haemorrhage. Which of these other findings is most likely to be present.

Q74.

A young man presented with diarrhea associated with anal fistula. Laboratory investigation showed granuloma. What is the likely cause?

Q75.

Concerning raised intracranial pressure associated with acute phase of cerebrovascular accident, all but one of these is true.

Q76.

A patient was recently told he had pheochromocytoma following complaints of episodic headaches and histology of an adrenal lesion. Which of the following is not true concerning pheochromocytoma

Q77.

Concerning multiple endocrine neoplasms syndromes, which of the following options does not describe their characteristics

Q78.

All of these tumours may be found in MEN 1 syndrome EXCEPT

Q79.

The following findings are characteristic of MEN 2B with the exclusion of

Q80.

A patient with family history of polycystic kidney disease presented with headache and altered consciousness. What is the likely cause?

Q81.

A medical student was asked during ward round to state the mechanisms of airway obstruction in pathogenesis of Asthma. Which of the following options he mentioned is false?

Q82.

An elderly man who worked in a coal mine is being managed for pneumoconiosis. Which of the following statement is correct?

Q83.

A middle‑aged man presented with central chest pain and was diagnosed of myocardial infarction, which of the following is an unlikely complication of Myocardial Infarction?

Q84.

A young man on admission is being managed for hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. Which of the following is a feature?

Q85.

A child is on admission on account of congenital heart disease. Which of the following is not a feature of right to left shunt disorders?

Q86.

A young boy who is a known Diabetic is being managed with insulin therapy. Which of the following is incorrect of this type of diabetes?

Q87.

Concerning heart failure, which of the following is not a cause of diastolic failure?

Q88.

One of the following is expected in a patient with septic shock

Q89.

Aplasia refers to the

Q90.

Complications seen in a premature new‑born is not likely to include

Q91.

A 45‑year woman with thyroid enlargement presents with initial hyperthyroidism which later shows reduced thyroid hormone levels. The histology picture reveals profuse lymphocytic infiltrates that destroy thyroid follicles. These lymphocytes form lymphoid follicles that have pale germinal centers. The patient most likely has:

Q92.

A neoplastic thyroid lesion shows small thyroid follicles lined by simple cuboidal cells that invade the capsule surrounding the tumour cells in a mushroom pattern. A blood vessel outside the tumour area is seen containing the tumour cells. The histologic diagnosis is:

Q93.

A thyroid neoplasm arising from parafollicular C cells is most likely:

Q94.

A skin lesion that shows an interface tissue reaction (dense lymphocytic infiltration obscuring the dermoepidermal junction) with epidermal basal cell damage describes

Q95.

A pigmented lesion that shows proliferating melanocytes that show neuritization as they grow into the dermis is describing

Q96.

A pathologist described a prostate biopsy as showing majorly sheets of malignant cells and some foci of small malignant glands with little intervening stroma. The International Society of Urologist Pathologist (ISUP) grade is likely.

Q97.

A histological variant of skin cancer is

Q98.

A patient with a low thyroid level has a puffy skin that appears swollen around the tibia area. On examination, the patient is seen to have a non‑pitting oedema. One of the following alterations led to this

Q99.

A patient presented with dysphagia and heart burn. These symptoms are not relieved by high‑dose proton pump inhibitor treatment. Manometry shows absence of acid reflux. The patient however gets relief when he stops taking cow milk. The patient most likely has

Q100.

A 15‑year‑old male with Klinefelter\'s syndrome presents with a unilateral, painless enlargement of the testis. He most likely has a

Q101.

Meningitis is best described as the inflammation of

Q102.

One of the following is true about a patient diagnosed of cardiogenic shock:

Q103.

The following are true of lung adenocarcinomas except

Q104.

Common clinical features of lung cancer include, except

Q105.

A 63‑year‑old woman presented with mass in the upper lobe of her left lung with enlargement of the mediastinal lymph nodes. Surgical biopsy shows columnar tumor cells with abundant intracytoplasmic mucin in an acinar growth pattern. The malignant cells are most likely to be positive for which of the following mutations?

Q106.

A 59‑year‑old man presents with cough, hemoptysis and shortness of breath. A mass in his left lung was biopsied and an invasive non‑mucinous adenocarcinoma diagnosis was made. Which of the following are possible histologic sub‑types?

Q107.

Which of the following is the most common non‑traumatic intracranial haemorrhage?

Q108.

Which cerebral site is the most predisposed to hypertensive intracranial haemorrhage?

Q109.

Liver cell cancers:

Q110.

Concerning leprosy, the following are false:

Q111.

M. leprae is an acid‑fast obligate extracellular organism.

Q112.

Lepromine test is a Type IV hypersensitivity reaction.

Q113.

Concerning leprosy:

Q114.

Which of these is correct?

Q115.

Concerning diabetic nephropathy:

Q116.

BAX is anti‑apoptotic.

Q117.

Apoptosis:

Q118.

Radical‑Mediated Cell Injury plays an important role in the following situations:

Q119.

Granulation tissue:

Q120.

The following may be directly visualized using the light microscope:

Q121.

Dysplasia is characterized by the following features:

Q122.

Hypertrophy of smooth muscle occurs in the following situation(s):

Q123.

The following may occur as a consequence of shock:

Q124.

Hypersensitivity reactions:

Q125.

The following neoplastic tumors are benign:

Q126.

The following statements about melanin pigments are true:

Q127.

Cell death by apoptosis:

Q128.

The following statements on tissue regeneration are valid:

Q129.

Amyloidosis:

Q130.

These factors predispose to the formation of venous thrombosis:

Q131.

Pulmonary embolism:

Q132.

Prostate cancer:

Q133.

These factors predispose to the formation of venous thrombosis:

Q134.

The following polyps in the large bowel are preneoplastic:

Q135.

Gynaecomastia:

Q136.

Immediate (Type I) hypersensitivity:

Q137.

The following are examples of Type IV (cell‑mediated) hypersensitivity:

Q138.

Rhabdomyosarcoma is a malignant tumour of:

Q139.

Concerning benign tumors, the following are true:

Q140.

The following are true:

Q141.

The following are types of cell injury:

Q142.

Recognized morphologic characteristics of hepatic cirrhosis include:

Q143.

The following are true:

Q144.

Concerning thrombosis, primary abnormalities that lead to thrombus formation include (Virchow\'s triad):

Q145.

In the pathogenesis of embolism:

Q146.

Amyloid is:

Q147.

Chromosomal disorders:

Q148.

A mutation is:

Q149.

The following cells are involved in chronic inflammation:

Q150.

Types of necrosis include:

Q151.

Risk factors for thrombosis:

Q152.

In edema:

Q153.

An exudate is:

Q154.

Concerning inflammation, the following are true:

Q155.

The following are true:

Q156.

Apoptosis:

Q157.

Chemical mediators of inflammation include:

Q158.

The following factors influence repair:

Q159.

The following statements are true:

Q160.

The following are patterns of tissue necrosis:

Q161.

The following are physiologic forms of apoptosis:

Q162.

The following are changes that occur in apoptosis:

Q163.

The following statements are true:

Q164.

Cellular events in acute inflammation include:

Q165.

Outcomes of inflammation include:

Q166.

Adult Polycystic renal disease:

Q167.

Gestational choriocarcinoma:

Q168.

Prostatic carcinoma:

Q169.

Benign Nodular Hyperplasia of the prostate:

Q170.

Complications of myocardial infarction include the following:

Q171.

Systemic hypertension:

Q172.

Congenital cardiac anomalies causing a Right to Left shunt may be associated with:

Q173.

The following are Obstructive airway diseases:

Q174.

Concerning bronchiectasis:

Q175.

Concerning Liver Cirrhosis:

Q176.

Causes of splenomegaly includes the following except:

Q177.

Each of the following features are characteristic of the nephrotic syndrome except:

Q178.

Urinalysis results include proteinuria, many red blood cells and red blood cell casts, and 1‑2 white blood cells per high power field. Which of the following diseases best fits with these findings?

Q179.

In the usual adult type of polycystic kidneys, findings often include:

Q180.

An important condition causing renal calculi is:

Q181.

Morphologic changes seen with chronic pyelonephritis are:

Q182.

A 60‑year‑old patient with signs of meningitis shows CSF with low glucose, high proteins, and leukocytosis. The most likely causative organism is:

Q183.

The most important risk factor for cervical cancer:

Q184.

The most common histological variant of breast cancer:

Q185.

The following tumours and its tissue of origin are correctly matched except

Q186.

The following are features of anaplasia except

Q187.

The following are true about dysplasia except

Q188.

Alterations in DNA cause changes in one or more of the following types of genes associated with carcinogenesis except

Q189.

Concerning APOPTOSIS

Q190.

The following are apoptotic changes in pathologic conditions except

Q191.

Dystrophic calcification is seen in all of the following EXCEPT

Q192.

An example of exogenous pigments in intracellular accumulation

Q193.

Which of the underlisted is false about chemical carcinogenesis?

Q194.

A chemical substance which induces tumor to arise from initiated state is best described as:

Q195.

Which does not apply to Promoters in carcinogenesis?

Q196.

Ultraviolet rays:

Q197.

The following are oncogenic viruses except

Q198.

Which of the following is an oncogenic bacteria?

Q199.

Concerning grading of cancer:

Q200.

Which of these is a factor considered during staging of cancer?

Q201.

The laboratory diagnosis of cancer is confirmed by

Q202.

Morphologic forms of acute inflammation do not involve

Q203.

The following are salient features of chronic inflammation except:

Q204.

Naked granulomatous inflammation is not characterized by:

Q205.

The commonest elicitable systemic effect of inflammation is:

Q206.

One of the following is labile tissue.

Q207.

Which of the following is not correct about tissue repair by regeneration:

Q208.

During remodeling process of wound healing:

Q209.

A boy was born with cleft lip. He can best be described as:

Q210.

The right kidney of a 5-day old baby girl was not visible following ultrasound and intravenous urogram. However, magnetic imaging resonance showed substance resembling renal primordium. The girl can best be described as having:

Q211.

Fetal causes of intra-uterine growth restriction includes:

Q212.

The following is not associated with sudden infant death syndrome:

Q213.

In immune related causes of hydrops foetalis, one of the following is wrong:

Q214.

Which of the following is true in cystic fibrosis:

Q215.

One of the following is not a childhood tumour:

Q216.

The cause of pretibial myxedema:

Q217.

In pulmonary congestion:

Q218.

Stasis of blood flow could result in thrombus formation by:

Q219.

The pathologist at autopsy sees a blood clot in the pulmonary trunk. Which of the following will let him/her know the clot occurred antemortem?

Q220.

A patient has developing thrombus in the femoral artery, one of the following is expected of this developing thrombus:

Q221.

The following is true about opsonisation:

Q222.

Concerning mediators of inflammation, one of the following is false:

Q223.

A child was brought to the hospital on account of joint swelling and was diagnosed with hemophilia. The consultant explained to the parents that it is an X-linked disorder. Which of the following is true?

Q224.

A patient was informed during ward round that she has suffered reversible injury to her organs. Which of the following is not a morphologic feature of reversible cell injury?

Q225.

An unwell patient had sample taken for histology and report showed presence of psammoma bodies. Which of the following is not a likely cause of the condition?

Q226.

A child developed wheezing and respiratory distress owing to exposure to pollen, which of the following is true about type 1 hypersensitivity?

Q227.

Addy had kidney transplant recently and presented with features of transplant rejection. Which of the following is true about acute rejection?

Q228.

A child presented with chronic cough, hemoptysis and weight loss. The diagnosis of tuberculosis was made. Which of the following is wrong about fate of primary tuberculosis?

Q229.

A middle aged man is being managed for suspected secondary tuberculosis. Which of the following is incorrect?

Q230.

A three-year-old child has history of recurrent infections and suspected of having primary immunodeficiency syndrome. The blood sugar is normal, which of the following is true about primary immunodeficiency disease?

Q231.

A young lady presented with renal problems and butterfly-shaped rash on the face. She\'s being treated for SLE. Which of the following is not a mechanism of autoimmune disorder?

Q232.

A young man donated part of his liver to a sibling. Some years later, during routine health ultrasound discovered a healthy increase in the liver. What is responsible for this phenomenon?

Q233.

Glycogen storage disease is due to accumulation of glycogen in the cells. Which of the following is not a mechanism of intracellular accumulation?

Q234.

A young man was diagnosed with Polycystic kidney disease which is an example of autosomal dominant disorder. Which of the following is true?

Q235.

Which of the following is not a risk factor for Cervical carcinoma?

Q236.

Concerning aetiopathogenesis of cervical cancer, which of the underlisted is incorrect?

Q237.

Which of the underlisted options is most correct about squamous cell carcinoma of the cervix?

Q238.

A 19-year-old female undergraduate student had lumpectomy of right breast lump and histology reports that there is encapsulated lesion which is composed of proliferating ducts and stroma, with compression of the ducts into slit-like spaces by the stroma. The stroma also shows myxoid features. What is the diagnosis?

Q239.

A fungating breast lesion on the left upper outer quadrant of the breast in a 65-year-old grandmother is best diagnosed with:

Q240.

A 30-year-old mother of two reported a growth on the left side of the breast. Her lumpectomy histology showed significantly dysplastic epithelial cells but with intact basement membrane. The pathologic diagnosis is most likely?

Q241.

Concerning gynaecomastia:

Q242.

Which of the underlisted is not correct about breast cancer?

Q243.

A 53-year-old father of 5 children had endoscopy and biopsy of gastric mucosa. The histology of the tissue showed lamina propria which is expanded by infiltrates of chronic inflammatory cells, especially lymphocytes with focal follicle formation. Which of the underlisted is correct about the diagnosis of the Pathologist?

Q244.

What type of anemia is associated with autoimmune gastritis?

Q245.

Which of these is incorrect about pyogenic osteomyelitis?

Q246.

The predisposing conditions for tuberculosis osteomyelitis do not include:

Q247.

A 56-year-old man with significant history of hypertensive cardiovascular disease presented in an unconscious state. Further evaluation revealed positive history of projectile vomiting and headache. Examination findings included a Blood pressure reading of 180/100mmHg, Irregular respiration and papilloedema. Brain CT scan showed an area with findings consistent with cerebral infarction. The likely cause of raised intracranial pressure in the patient is:

Q248.

During an autopsy procedure, examination of the brain showed increased weight and areas of bleeding in the pons which were identified as duret haemorrhage. Which of these other findings is most likely to be present?

Q249.

Concerning raised intracranial pressure associated with acute phase of cerebrovascular accident, all but one of these is true.

Q250.

A patient was recently told he had pheochromocytoma following complaints of episodic headaches and histology of an adrenal lesion. Which of the following is not true concerning pheochromocytoma?

Q251.

Concerning multiple endocrine neoplasm syndromes, which of the following options does not describe their characteristics?

Q252.

All of these tumours may be found in MEN 1 syndrome EXCEPT

Q253.

The following findings are characteristic of MEN 2B with the exclusion of:

Q254.

A patient with family history of polycystic kidney disease presented with headache and altered consciousness. What is the likely cause?

Q255.

A medical student was asked during ward round to state the mechanisms of airway obstruction in pathogenesis of Asthma. Which of the following options he mentioned is false?

Q256.

An elderly man who worked in a coal mine is being managed for pneumoconiosis. Which of the following statement is correct?

Q257.

Which of the following ovarian tumour is associated with endometrial cancer?

Q258.

A young man presented with diarrhea associated with anal fistula. Laboratory investigation showed granuloma. What is the likely cause?

Q259.

A middle-aged man presented with central chest pain and was diagnosed of myocardial infarction, which of the following is an unlikely complication of Myocardial infarction?

Q260.

A young man on admission is being managed for hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. Which of the following is a feature?

Q261.

A child is on admission on account of congenital heart disease. Which of the following is not a feature of right to left shunt disorders?

Q262.

A young boy who is a known Diabetic is being managed with insulin therapy. Which of the following is incorrect of this type of diabetes?

Q263.

Concerning heart failure, which of the following is not a cause of diastolic failure?

Q264.

One of the following is expected in a patient with septic shock

Q265.

Aplasia refers to the

Q266.

Complications seen in a premature new-born is not likely to include

Q267.

A 45-year woman with thyroid enlargement presents with initial hyperthyroidism which later shows reduced thyroid hormone levels. The histology picture reveals profuse lymphocytic infiltrates that destroy thyroid follicles. These lymphocytes form lymphoid follicles that have pale germinal centers. The patient most likely has:

Q268.

A neoplastic thyroid lesion shows small thyroid follicles lined by simple cuboidal cells that invade the capsule surrounding the tumour cells in a mushroom pattern. A blood vessel outside the tumour area is seen containing the tumour cells. The histologic diagnosis is:

Q269.

A thyroid neoplasm arising from parafollicular C cells is most likely:

Q270.

A skin lesion that shows an interface tissue reaction (dense lymphocytic infiltration obscuring the dermoepidermal junction) with epidermal basal cell damage describes:

Q271.

A pigmented lesion that shows proliferating melanocytes that show neuritization as they grow into the dermis is describing:

Q272.

A pathologist described a prostate biopsy as showing majorly sheets of malignant cells and some foci of small malignant glands with little intervening stroma. The International Society of Urologist Pathologist (ISUP) grade is likely:

Q273.

A histological variant of skin cancer is:

Q274.

A patient with a low thyroid level has a puffy skin that appears swollen around the tibia area. On examination, the patient is seen to have a non-pitting oedema. One of the following alterations led to this:

Q275.

A patient presented with dysphagia and heart burn. These symptoms are not relieved by high-dose proton pump inhibitor treatment. Manometry shows absence of acid reflux. The patient however gets relief when he stops taking cow milk. The patient most likely has:

Q276.

A 15-year-old male with Klinefelter\'s syndrome presents with a unilateral, painless enlargement of the testis. He most likely has a:

Q277.

Meningitis is best described as the inflammation of:

Q278.

A middle-aged woman was admitted to the hospital due to occlusion of cerebral artery by atherosclerosis. Which of the following is not a feature of atherosclerosis?

Q279.

One of the following is true about a patient diagnosed of cardiogenic shock:

Q280.

The following are true of lung adenocarcinoma except:

Q281.

Common clinical features of lung cancer include, except:

Q282.

A 63-year-old woman presented with mass in the upper lobe of her left lung with enlargement of the mediastinal lymph nodes. Surgical biopsy shows columnar tumor cells with abundant intracytoplasmic mucin in an acinar growth pattern. The malignant cells are most likely to be positive for which of the following mutations?

Q283.

A 59-year-old man presents with cough, hemoptysis and shortness of breath. A mass in his left lung was biopsied and an invasive non-mucinous adenocarcinoma diagnosis was made. Which of the following are possible histologic sub-types?

Q284.

Which of the following is the most common non-traumatic intracranial haemorrhage?

Q285.

Which cerebral site is the most predisposed to hypertensive intracranial haemorrhage?

Q286.

A 57-year-old man presented with easy satiety, unintentional weight loss and anorexia. Further evaluation confirmed a diagnosis of Gastric adenocarcinoma. Which of the following indicates a likelihood of lymphatic spread?

Q287.

A 24-year-old was recently diagnosed of lobular breast carcinoma. The elder brother recently has a partial gastrectomy and the pathologist described the specimen as having a \'leather bottle\' appearance. Which of the following is true?

Q288.

A 48-year-old woman was diagnosed of cervical cancer. Which of the following is true of cervical cancer?

Q289.

A 50-year-old man who is on management for cerebrovascular accident regained consciousness and made persistent complaints of epigastric pain. The physician recalled that the patient was supposed to be on proton-pump inhibitors to prevent the development of:

Q290.

A pathology trainee in a busy laboratory was asked to evaluate a histological slide of a breast lesion which showed marked fibrosis, periductal inflammation and dilated ducts. However, there was no identifiable breast lobule. All the following are true except:

Q291.

A 45-year-old lady was diagnosed of breast cancer and wanted to know about the factors that would affect her prognosis. Which of the following is not a prognostic index in breast cancer?

Q292.

Concerning molecular carcinogenesis, which of the following is false of Knudson\'s hypothesis?

Q293.

Concerning transtentorial herniation, all the following are true EXCEPT:

Q294.

Concerning pheochromocytoma, all the following are true EXCEPT:

Q295.

The following principles underlie cancers EXCEPT:

Q296.

A middle-aged woman presented with a history of abdominal swelling, weight loss and abdominal pain. She was diagnosed with ovarian malignancy and histology showed psammoma bodies. Which of the following is not usually associated with psammoma bodies?

Q297.

A young man was brought to the clinic on account of chronic diarrhoea which is bloody and managed for Ulcerative colitis. Which of the following is a feature of ulcerative colitis?

Q298.

Concerning Amyloidosis, which of the following is true of this condition?

Q299.

A young man presented with joint pains, swelling which was preceded by a two-week history of diarrhoea. What is the likely diagnosis?

Q300.

A young child was rushed to accident and emergency unit on account of sudden history of cough, dyspnoea and wheezing. Which of the following is correct about the pathogenesis of Asthma?

Q301.

A middle-aged woman presents with joint pains and was diagnosed with Rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following is incorrect about Rheumatoid arthritis?

Q302.

A child is being managed for tetralogy of Fallot. Which of the following is true about tetralogy of Fallot?

Q303.

A middle-aged man presents sudden chest pain radiating to left arm and excessive sweating. He was diagnosed with acute coronary syndrome. Which of the following is true about acute coronary syndrome?

Q304.

Concerning cellular injury, which of the following is not an ultrastructural feature of reversible cell injury?

Q305.

A 5-year-old boy presented with a sudden painful scrotal pain. He most likely has a:

Q306.

One of the following is not true concerning syphilitic aortic aneurysms:

Q307.

A pathologist described a vascular neoplasm as locally aggressive to a group of surgeons. The neoplasm is most likely:

Q308.

One of the following matches is correct:

Q309.

A thyroid neoplasm that shows wide areas of extracellular pinkish amorphous material that appear deep red after staining with Congo red and tumour cells that stain for calcitonin on immunohistochemistry is most likely:

Q310.

A skin lesion that shows presence of epidermal hyperplasia with elongation of the rete ridges in a regular manner describes:

Q311.

One of the following matches is correct:

Q312.

A patient diagnosed of meningitis has blood glucose of 100mg/dl. Cerebrospinal fluid shows glucose of 80mg/dl, normal protein and numerous lymphocytes. The patient most likely has:

Q313.

One of the following is not true about acute kidney injury (AKI):

Q314.

In oesophageal disorders, one of the following is true:

Q315.

Which of these is not a measure in the prevention of laboratory hazards?

Q316.

A 22-year-old man had abdominal pains and histologic review of his excised tissue showed extensive ulceration, necrosis and focal calcific deposits. He was diagnosed with chronic inflammatory bowel disease. Which of the underlisted is his calcification type?

Q317.

One of the underlisted conditions is not a feature of a malignant tumour:

Q318.

Which of the underlisted is an organ specific autoimmune disease?

Q319.

A 60-year-old known diabetic woman slept and woke up with hemiplegia. She was taken to hospital where she was diagnosed of having ischaemic stroke, and subsequently died. Which of the underlisted is not an acute feature of the brain, demonstrable following autopsy?

Q320.

Concerning the above-mentioned index patient, which of the underlisted is a modifiable risk factor?

Q321.

A 43-year-old man presented with body swelling and elevated blood pressure. His kidney biopsy report showed focal membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis. Which of the underlisted best morphologically describes the histologic diagnosis?

Q322.

A 40-year-old man who had complained of hematuria and feeling of weighty, dragging sensation on the lumbar area of the abdomen was upon investigation found to have laboratory evidence of azotemia. What is your best clinical diagnosis:

Q323.

Concerning hydronephrosis:

Q324.

Tissue regeneration is best described as:

Q325.

Following healing of a burns wound of the elbow, 12-year-old Gbenga is unable to fully stretch out his elbow. Which of these apply?

Q326.

Margination in acute inflammation involve the following except:

Q327.

An example of low-grade vascular malignancy is:

Q328.

A 59-year-old man presents with cough, hemoptysis and shortness of breath. A mass in his left lung was biopsied and an invasive non-mucinous adenocarcinoma diagnosis was made. Which of the following are possible histologic subtypes?

Q329.

Which of the following is the most common non-traumatic intracranial haemorrhage?

Q330.

Which cerebral site is the most predisposed to hypertensive intracranial haemorrhage?

Q331.

A 27-year-old man was rushed to the emergency room because of weakness and breathlessness following bouts of haemoptysis, gross haematuria, peripheral edema and elevated blood pressure. What is he most likely suffering from?

Q332.

Concerning the aetiology of chronic inflammation the following are true except:

Q333.

Causes of caseating granulomatous inflammation does not include:

Q334.

One of these is an important characteristic of granuloma:

Q335.

Pathogen evade phagocytosis using the following, except:

Q336.

Concerning Apoptosis, which of these is true?

Q337.

In a man, which of the following best describes sex chromosome aneuploidy?

Q338.

Concerning endogenous pyrogens, the following are inclusive except:

Q339.

Which of these is not a characteristic of pale infarct?

Q340.

Which of these is least likely to cause hypovolemic shock?

Q341.

Which of the following helps in loose neutrophil adhesion?

Q342.

The following are salient features of chronic Inflammation except:

Q343.

Concerning schistosomiasis, which of the following is true:

Q344.

Ultraviolet Rays:

Q345.

Morphologic forms of Acute Inflammation do not involve:

Q346.

Concerning cellular injury, which of the following is not an ultrastructural feature of reversible cellular injury?

Q347.

The following are involved in Amyloidosis, except:

Q348.

One of the following is a labile tissue:

Q349.

The following are apoptotic changes in pathologic conditions except:

Q350.

In tumor nomenclature, which of these is appropriately matched to the right benign tumor?

Q351.

The laboratory diagnosis of cancer is confirmed by:

Q352.

DNA alterations affect all of the following genes associated with carcinogenesis except:

Q353.

Concerning dysplasia, all are true except:

Q354.

Which of these is not a childhood tumor?

Q355.

Psammoma bodies are not typically seen in which of these:

Q356.

Which of these origin of tumors are incorrectly paired?

Q357.

On radiological investigation, the lab technician reported that the left kidney was not seen, it\'s primordium was not seen either. Which of these best describes the condition?

Q358.

A fetus had an ureteric fistula which led to oligohydramnios which led to flat face and deformed feet. Which of this best describes the event?

Q359.

A 35 year old man presents with a red, warm and swollen leg following a laceration, which of these is responsible for the redness and warmth?

Q360.

Which of the following is responsible for directing neutrophils during inflammation?

Q361.

A patient presents with Lisch nodules and café-au-lait spots. What is the diagnosis?

Q362.

30 year old woman presents with tremors, weight loss and exophthalmos. Which of the autoantibody reaction best describes it?

Q363.

A 14 yr old boy with polyuria, polydipsia, hyperglycemia. What explains this?

Q364.

A patient with SLE has a strong family history of auto immune disease. Which of the following HLA alleles is most commonly associated?

Q365.

A 60 year old man with left sided heart failure presents with bilateral leg edema. Which is a cause of this type of edema?

Q366.

Hyperemia and congestion are both mechanisms of increased blood volume in a tissue. Which of the following describes their fundamental difference?

Q367.

A boy presents with gynaecomastia, small firm testes, and tall stature. What is the sex chromosome aneuploidy implicated?

Q368.

A patient with Bronze-colored skin, Liver Cirrhosis, Diabetes Mellitus, and massive Iron overload correlates with which of the following conditions?

Q369.

A 5-year-old boy presented with severe muscular weakness, a waddling gait, and apparent muscular hypertrophy of his calves. He most likely has:

Q370.

Which is a feature of irreversible cellular injury?

Q371.

Which is a common cause of cellular atrophy?

Q372.

A 65-year-old man with atherosclerosis develops a massive myocardial infarction. Which type of cell injury is the most likely present in his cardiac myocytes?

Q373.

Histological grading of malignant tumors is based primarily on:

Q374.

A 25-year-old man suffered trauma to the side of his head, experiencing loss of consciousness for 2 minutes. He woke up and appeared fine, but 5 hours later, he entered a deep state of unconsciousness. Which of the following statements concerning this pathology is false?

Q375.

Non-Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs (NSAIDs) cause acute gastric ulcers through which primary mechanism?

Q376.

Epigenetic silencing of the CDH1 (E-cadherin) gene in certain cancers, such as sporadic diffuse gastric carcinoma, is primarily mediated by:

Q377.

The incomplete relaxation of the lower oesophageal sphincter due to absent ganglion cells in the myenteric plexus is:

Q378.

Renal papillary necrosis is a feared complication seen in all of the following conditions EXCEPT:

Q379.

Which of the following is the most common cause of acute tubulointerstitial nephritis?

Q380.

Which of these is NOT an indolent tumor?

Q381.

A 28-year-old never-smoker Asian woman presents with lung adenocarcinoma. Molecular testing would most likely reveal which mutation?

Q382.

Which of the following represents the routine prognostic and predictive immunohistochemical panel ordered for a newly diagnosed invasive ductal carcinoma of the breast?

Q383.

Which of these are the defining histological features of a simple fibroadenoma?

Q384.

A 35-year-old never-smoker presented with multiple pulmonary nodules. Biopsy shows solid adenocarcinoma. Which specific test is the gold standard to detect if targeted therapy with ALK inhibitors will be eligible?

Q385.

The genetic mutation found in virtually all (\>95%) small cell lung carcinomas (SCLC) involves:

Q386.

One of the following is true of Type 2 endometrial cancer: