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Chemical Pathology

Study Mode • 221 Questions

Q1.

McArdle disease is also known as:

Q2.

Tarui\'s disease is due to:

Q3.

One of the following is NOT a bone formation biomarker:

Q4.

Bone formation biomarkers include all EXCEPT:

Q5.

One of the following is NOT a hormone of the pituitary:

Q6.

Hers disease is due to deficiency of:

Q7.

Clinical manifestation of Type 3 glycogen storage disease EXCEPT:

Q8.

Osteoporosis:

Q9.

Features of subclinical primary hypothyroidism include:

Q10.

One of the following is low in subclinical hyperthyroidism:

Q11.

Post‑menopausal osteoporosis is caused by:

Q12.

Drug of choice for preventing post‑menopausal osteoporosis:

Q13.

Von Gierke\'s disease is also known as:

Q14.

Pompe\'s disease is also known as:

Q15.

Features of euthyroid sick syndrome include:

Q16.

Under abnormal circumstances, iodine is kicked off the inner ring of T4 leading to formation of:

Q17.

Major organs for extra‑thyroidal production of T3 from T4 are:

Q18.

UNTRUE statement about Pompe\'s disease:

Q19.

Continuous turnover of bone matrix and mineral is called:

Q20.

For most adults, high blood pressure is present if the resting blood pressure is persistently at or above:

Q21.

Modifiable risk factor for developing hypertension is:

Q22.

As regards lipid profile in hypertension, one of the following is false:

Q23.

Drugs that can induce hypertension:

Q24.

Essential hypertension accounts for:

Q25.

Evaluation of biochemical changes in hypertension does NOT include:

Q26.

The WHO and JNC VI guideline define normal blood pressure as:

Q27.

The main component of bones is:

Q28.

Which one of these enzymes is not elevated in obstructive liver disease?

Q29.

The hallmark difference between rickets and osteomalacia is:

Q30.

Clinical features that may result in both rickets and osteomalacia EXCEPT:

Q31.

Paget\'s disease of the bone:

Q32.

UNTRUE statement about Paget\'s disease:

Q33.

Risk of osteogenic sarcoma is increased in:

Q34.

The most prevalent metabolic bone disease is:

Q35.

One of the following is NOT a biochemical feature of renal osteodystrophy:

Q36.

Renal osteodystrophy refers to:

Q37.

The most common complaint of patients with renal osteodystrophy:

Q38.

The classical and commonest enzyme deficiency in Galactosaemia is:

Q39.

Definitive diagnosis of galactosaemia is made by:

Q40.

Glycogen storage disease type I (Von Gierke\'s disease):

Q41.

The most prominent feature in Type 1 glycogen storage disease:

Q42.

All except one is true about the urea cycle:

Q43.

The rate‑limiting step in urea cycle is:

Q44.

The urea cycle is linked to the TCA cycle through:

Q45.

Clinical manifestations of urea cycle disorders in adults include all EXCEPT:

Q46.

The kidney cannot form urea due to the absence of:

Q47.

Correct statement about function of urea cycle:

Q48.

The best answer regarding pathogenesis of endocrinopathy in HIV/AIDS:

Q49.

The most adversely affected organ in HIV/AIDS is:

Q50.

Large thyroid abscess could be caused by:

Q51.

The most common cause of thyroiditis in HIV‑associated thyroid infection:

Q52.

The most frequent hypothalamo‑pituitary endocrine abnormality in HIV/AIDS is:

Q53.

In HIV replication, single strands of viral RNA are converted into double‑stranded DNA by:

Q54.

Hypogonadism occurs in the later stages of HIV infection in about \_\_\_% of men:

Q55.

Decreased testosterone levels in AIDS patients correlate with a decline in:

Q56.

Thyrotoxicosis is different from hyperthyroidism in that:

Q57.

One of the following is FALSE in Graves\' disease:

Q58.

The limiting step in the synthesis of thyroid hormone is:

Q59.

A medication used in HIV‑related disorders that alters glucocorticoid metabolism and electrolyte imbalance is:

Q60.

Investigation of Cushing syndrome:

Q61.

Screening test for Cushing\'s syndrome:

Q62.

In Cushing syndrome, false positive conditions for screening tests may be due to all EXCEPT:

Q63.

In the investigation of Cushing\'s syndrome, the following tests are used to differentiate aetiology EXCEPT:

Q64.

Investigation of suspected adrenal insufficiency -- correct statement:

Q65.

Synacthen test is used to test for function of:

Q66.

Secondary adrenal insufficiency -- identify the false statement:

Q67.

Which of the following is a peptide hormone?

Q68.

Possible second messengers for hormonal action include:

Q69.

One of the following does NOT initiate the fixed membrane receptor mechanism:

Q70.

Positive feedback:

Q71.

A hormone that mediates a mobile response mechanism of action is:

Q72.

The sex of an individual is defined at which of the following levels?

Q73.

One of the following is INCORRECT:

Q74.

Which of the following is NOT correct about precocious puberty?

Q75.

About gonadal hermaphroditism:

Q76.

Ovulation can be confirmed by the following EXCEPT:

Q77.

Ovulation can be confirmed biochemically by:

Q78.

All of the following have the same alpha subunit EXCEPT:

Q79.

Which of the following is NOT true about the menstrual cycle?

Q80.

Correct statement during menstrual cycle:

Q81.

During the first day of the menstrual cycle, which hormone level is increased?

Q82.

Negative feedback on FSH during early follicular phase is produced by release of:

Q83.

The principal hormone of the luteal phase is:

Q84.

Which of the following plays a principal role in the synthesis of thyroid hormones?

Q85.

Which of the following is produced largely in the periphery rather than in the thyroid gland?

Q86.

Conn\'s syndrome is caused by:

Q87.

The following aid in controlling water and sodium balance EXCEPT:

Q88.

Which of the following affects sodium‑potassium and sodium‑hydrogen ion exchange?

Q89.

Over‑secretion of growth hormone would result in:

Q90.

Hyperprolactinaemia can cause all EXCEPT:

Q91.

Concerning HCG, it is useful in diagnosis and management of the following EXCEPT:

Q92.

Concerning lipoproteins -- all is correct EXCEPT:

Q93.

Chylomicrons is made up of:

Q94.

VLDL is made up of:

Q95.

LDL is made up of:

Q96.

Corrected calcium is important:

Q97.

About calcium absorption:

Q98.

The primary factor that regulates magnesium absorption in the gut is:

Q99.

Abnormal metabolism of Vitamin D occurs in all conditions EXCEPT:

Q100.

Clinically meaningful variation is seen in haemolysed blood sample EXCEPT:

Q101.

Patients are more prone to developing ketoacidosis in:

Q102.

Non‑vascular complications of diabetes mellitus EXCEPT:

Q103.

Which of the following is a cause of hypoglycaemia?

Q104.

Which is INCORRECT in type 2 diabetes mellitus?

Q105.

All the following are used to make a diagnosis of metabolic syndrome EXCEPT:

Q106.

The following is NOT true about surgical treatment of obesity:

Q107.

The primary cause of obesity:

Q108.

Which of the following does NOT test for obstructive liver disease?

Q109.

All of the following are functions of the liver EXCEPT:

Q110.

Enzymes mainly used for diagnosis of biliary obstruction EXCEPT:

Q111.

The plasma enzyme commonly used as index for hepatocellular damage is:

Q112.

When liver cells are destroyed, which enzyme is seen in high concentration?

Q113.

Very high plasma GGT levels may be due to:

Q114.

The interaction between a drug and its receptors or other target molecules involved in physiological processes is referred to as:

Q115.

A category of therapeutic drug that must be closely monitored because of the serious consequences of underdosing (which might lead to graft rejection) is:

Q116.

Disorders that affect the synthesis of drug transport proteins alter which component of drug disposition?

Q117.

The following are indications for therapeutic drug monitoring EXCEPT:

Q118.

The following drugs are implicated in malabsorption syndrome EXCEPT:

Q119.

Manifestations NOT suggestive of malabsorption syndrome:

Q120.

Test for lactose deficiency include:

Q121.

Qualitative test for fat malabsorption:

Q122.

Causes of malabsorption syndrome in the digestive phase EXCEPT:

Q123.

Biochemically, immunoglobulins are:

Q124.

The light and heavy immunoglobulins are joined by:

Q125.

The first immunoglobulin heavy chain class to be expressed on the surface of a newly produced B cell is:

Q126.

Concerning immunoglobulin structure:

Q127.

Concerning IgM -- correct statement:

Q128.

Concerning IgG -- correct statement:

Q129.

Concerning IgA -- correct statement:

Q130.

Immunoglobulin class that activates the complement system via the alternate pathway is:

Q131.

Papain digests immunoglobulin monomer into:

Q132.

The function of the Fab fragment of an antibody is:

Q133.

Human plasma contains:

Q134.

The most abundant protein in human plasma is:

Q135.

The amount of protein in the vascular compartment depends on all EXCEPT:

Q136.

The synthetic rate of albumin is controlled primarily by:

Q137.

Concerning immunoglobulin -- correct statement:

Q138.

Which of the following is NOT an acute phase reactant?

Q139.

Microalbuminuria -- correct statements EXCEPT:

Q140.

Clinical enzymology includes:

Q141.

In diagnosing myocardial infarction:

Q142.

The enzyme of choice for diagnosing skeletal muscle disorders is:

Q143.

The following terms relate to the urinary system EXCEPT:

Q144.

Polyuria may be caused by the following EXCEPT:

Q145.

Concerning pregnancy‑associated polyuria:

Q146.

Chemical analysis of urine includes:

Q147.

Common causes of cloudy urine include:

Q148.

About phosphate buffers -- which is NOT correct?

Q149.

Haemoglobin buffer system -- correct statement:

Q150.

The kidneys help in acid‑base balance via the following mechanism:

Q151.

About bicarbonate buffers -- which is NOT true?

Q152.

Which of the following tests can be performed at the Point of Care (POC) to diagnose myocardial infarction?

Q153.

Which of the following is NOT a way by which the body handles potassium?

Q154.

Which is true about Bartter\'s syndrome?

Q155.

All of the following are associated with severe neonatal hyperbilirubinaemia EXCEPT:

Q156.

Unconjugated jaundice is seen in:

Q157.

A cause of impaired hepatic bilirubin uptake:

Q158.

Porphyrias are:

Q159.

Which statement is false about porphyria?

Q160.

Isolated increase in gamma glutamyl transpeptidase is due to:

Q161.

Disorders of the gonadal axis include all EXCEPT:

Q162.

Which is NOT true concerning amenorrhoea?

Q163.

Progesterone effect in pregnancy includes all EXCEPT:

Q164.

The following are part of the quadruple test:

Q165.

Which tests are used to assess liver function and detect liver damage?

Q166.

Which of the following is NOT a laboratory marker of hypertension?

Q167.

The following tests are performed on newborns to screen for metabolic disorders:

Q168.

The following include the roles of a chemical pathologist EXCEPT:

Q169.

Concerning specimen collection -- correct statement:

Q170.

Reference intervals are important for:

Q171.

The following occur before sample analysis is done EXCEPT:

Q172.

The following are found on a chemical pathology request form EXCEPT:

Q173.

The routine way of collecting CSF is:

Q174.

Which of the following can increase CSF glucose?

Q175.

The Physician\'s oath was recently upgraded to include a clause on:

Q176.

The following are examples of maleficence by commission EXCEPT:

Q177.

Beneficence means:

Q178.

Professional misconduct in medical practice includes all EXCEPT:

Q179.

Concerning hydronephrosis:

Q180.

Which of the following is a biochemical feature of uncontrolled Diabetes mellitus?

Q181.

Which of the following is true?

Q182.

Incorrect statement:

Q183.

Which of the hormones best matches its site of production?

Q184.

Lipoproteins are complex molecules composed of lipids and proteins that transport lipids throughout the bloodstream. Which lipoprotein is the major carrier of cholesterol from the peripheral tissues?

Q185.

Which is associated with increased risk of hyperkalemia?

Q186.

Pellagra results from corn consumption. Pellagra is a deficiency of which vitamin?

Q187.

Liver function tests are used to assess synthesis, obstruction and storage functions of the liver. Which of these tests is most sensitive to assess the synthetic function of the liver?

Q188.

Erectile dysfunction is not caused by one of the following:

Q189.

There are different types of bone cells and each has various physiological functions in the bone. One of these cells is responsible for breaking down bone tissue during remodeling:

Q190.

Least function that uses calcium:

Q191.

Complications associated with HIV treatment:

Q192.

Hormones have different mechanisms of action. An example of a hormone using the fixed-receptor pathway is:

Q193.

A pregnant woman is closely monitored for abnormalities. A rapidly rising beta-hCG is indicative of:

Q194.

Nephrogenesis is completed by which week of gestation?

Q195.

Neonatal GFR is about \_\_\_\_\_ % of an adult's GFR.

Q196.

An isomer refers to two or more substances with the same formula but different arrangement of atoms and different properties. Tocopherol has how many isomers?

Q197.

Which of the following is a negative acute-phase protein?

Q198.

Which of these is a property of a quality-control sample?

Q199.

The mineral-collagen ratio is normal in:

Q200.

Osteitis fibrosa cystica is associated with:

Q201.

One of these is not among the aetiopathogenesis of Type 2 diabetes:

Q202.

Why should personal appliances not be carried into the laboratory?

Q203.

Type 1 Error of Hypothesis:

Q204.

Which is not a tubular function test?

Q205.

Once hypertension has been identified, a minimum evaluation should be initiated. This evaluation serves three main purposes, which does not include one of the following?

Q206.

Which is not a complication of magnesium deficiency?

Q207.

Most common cause of end-stage renal disease (ESRD):

Q208.

Which is an essential trace mineral?

Q209.

Hypoalbuminaemia includes all except:

Q210.

Concerning glucokinase in glucose homeostasis:

Q211.

Which of these is incorrectly paired?

Q212.

Trace element that is NOT toxic (except):

Q213.

A patient with severe vomiting is at risk of:

Q214.

Which of the following is correct about the analytical phase?

Q215.

Incorrect statement about potassium:

Q216.

UNTRUE of IgG:

Q217.

Correct immunoglobulin statement:

Q218.

Which of the following is not a type of distal tubular renal acidosis?

Q219.

Concerning body water:

Q220.

Rickets/osteomalacia occur in:

Q221.

Which of these is a microvascular complication of diabetes?