Immunology/Haematology

True or false: Hodgkin lymphoma is more common than non-Hodgkin lymphoma.

The major molecule that best differentiates the common lymphoid progenitor (CLP) from the common myeloid progenitor (CMP) is:

Which diagnostic tests would you perform for multiple myeloma?

CLL Rai staging: absolute lymphocytosis with either hepatomegaly or splenomegaly, with or without lymphadenopathy, is:

True or false: any lymphoma without Reed-Sternberg cells is classified as non-Hodgkin lymphoma.

True or false: intrinsic factor is secreted by the parietal cells of the stomach.

Hematopoietic stem cells are characterized by all of the following markers except:

The cell most sensitive to erythropoietin (EPO) is:

Self-renewal and pluripotential differentiation potential are characteristics of:

Precursor cells that are morphologically recognizable are found in the:

The MEP (megakaryocyte-erythroid progenitor) gives rise to:

All hematopoietic cells are derived from the CFU-GEMM except:

Which of the following is the earliest morphologically recognizable erythroid precursor on a Wright-stained bone marrow smear?

The earliest morphologically recognizable granulocyte precursor when using a light microscope is:

In immunophenotyping, haematopoietic stem cells (HSCs) are characterized as:

Which of the following classes of hematopoietic cells has the ability to self-renew?

Which of the following classes of hematopoietic cells is committed to becoming an erythrocyte?

The point at which two cells from the same precursor take separate developmental routes is called:

The hematopoietic microenvironment is composed mainly of:

The stromal elements of the hematopoietic microenvironment include all of the following except:

Which cytoadhesion molecule plays a key role in retaining developing erythroid cells within the bone marrow microenvironment?

The role of the osteoblastic stem cell "niche" in bone marrow is primarily to:

During midfetal life, the primary site of blood cell production is the:

At which month of fetal development does the bone marrow become the primary site of haematopoiesis?

During the medullary phase of hematopoietic development, which bone is the first to show hematopoietic activity?

Which types of cells develop from the yolk sac (mesoblastic phase)?

Which of the following molecules, synthetically generated, is administered to patients with renal disease to stimulate red cell production?

Erythropoietin is produced primarily by the:

The primary effector (cause) of increased erythropoiesis is:

Concerning the stages of erythropoiesis, which sequence of maturation is correct?

Which of the following depicts the normal sequence of erythroid maturation on a stained smear?

Which of the following is the most mature normoblast?

The maximum number of erythrocytes generated by one multipotential stem cell is approximately:

What is meant by the term "erythron"?

What is the first stage of red cell maturation with visible cytoplasmic evidence of haemoglobin production on a Romanowsky-stained smear?

An increase in red cell membrane rigidity would be predicted to have what effect?

What property of the normal erythrocyte membrane allows the ~7 µm cell to squeeze through the ~3 µm splenic fenestrations?

The layer of the erythrocyte membrane largely responsible for the shape, structure, and deformability of the cell is the:

The lipids of the RBC membrane are arranged:

Lipid exchange between the RBC membrane and plasma occurs mainly:

Explain how a deficiency of LCAT (lecithin-cholesterol acyltransferase) can lead to expansion of the red cell membrane surface area.

Which single feature of a normal RBC is most responsible for limiting its lifespan?

The erythrocyte lifespan is most directly determined by:

Extravascular erythrocyte destruction occurs mainly in the:

How would an increase in RBC membrane permeability affect intracellular sodium balance?

If the erythrocyte cation pump fails from inadequate ATP generation, the result is:

Compare the placement and function of peripheral versus integral erythrocyte membrane proteins.

Which of the following facts about a normal RBC is NOT true?

The property allowing the erythrocyte to squeeze through fenestrations in the spleen and the change in RBC membrane rigidity affecting lifespan both point to the same underlying property — which is it?

Stain used to evaluate the presence of storage iron is:

The gold standard for diagnosing iron deficiency anaemia is:

What is the major metabolically available storage form of iron in the body?

Iron is stored mostly in the:

In the iron cycle, the transferrin receptor carries:

Iron absorption occurs predominantly:

Iron is incorporated into the haem molecule in which form?

Iron overload could be caused by all of the following except:

One of these is not an iron chelator:

Which of the following is true concerning anaemia (WHO cut-offs)?

Which of the following is a cause of normocytic anaemia?

A 25-year-old woman with fatigue, pallor, and shortness of breath has a blood smear showing microcytic, hypochromic anaemia. The most likely diagnosis is:

Decreased RBC numbers may be due to:

There are three broad mechanistic classifications of anaemia. Which of these is NOT one of them?

All of the following are compensatory mechanisms for anaemia except:

Anaemia may occur after acute blood loss. All of the following are compensatory mechanisms except:

Which one of these is the typical haematological picture in most types of leukaemia?

Which of the following is NOT a compensatory sign or symptom of anaemia?

Concerning MCV (mean corpuscular volume), the correct statement is:

Which red cell index tells you how big a patient's red cells are?

Laboratory red cell indices: determination of the relative size of RBCs (normal range ~82–98 fL) is:

Laboratory red cell indices: measurement of average weight of Hb per RBC (normal range ~27–33 pg) is:

Laboratory red cell indices: evaluation of RBC saturation with Hb (normal range ~32–36%) is:

Concerning MCHC, all of the following are true except:

The CBC parameter that gives insight into the amount of anisocytosis present in a specimen is:

Which of the following would correlate with an elevated ESR value?

A condition NOT associated with an elevated ESR is:

Causes spurious decrease in MCV:

Total RBC count reference range for women is approximately:

Total RBC count reference range for men is approximately:

What is the distribution of normal haemoglobin types in adults?

An RBC lifespan is generally quoted as approximately:

Given: observed reticulocyte count = 6%, haematocrit = 30%, calculate the reticulocyte production index (RPI).

A patient with an acceptable hemoglobin control range of 13 ± 0.4 g/dL is tested five times: 12, 12.3, 12, 12.2, 12.1 g/dL. These results are:

A 1:20 dilution is made using a unopette with glacial acetic acid as diluent. The four corner squares on both sides of the haemocytometer are counted for a total of 100 cells. What is the total WBC (×10■/L)?

The major component of adult haemoglobin is:

Which of the following haemoglobins is NOT found in the normal adult?

Which of the following is the major haemoglobin in the newborn?

Normal adult HbA contains which polypeptide chains?

Which of the following is the correct molecular structure of haemoglobin?

2,3-BPG (2,3-bisphosphoglycerate) combines preferentially with which form of haemoglobin?

One of the most important buffer systems of the body is the:

When the H+ concentration in blood increases, the oxygen affinity of haemoglobin:

During exercise, the oxygen affinity of haemoglobin is:

An aerobics instructor has just finished an hour of exercise. Blood is drawn and the oxygen dissociation curve is measured. What is expected?

In the lungs, a haemoglobin molecule takes up two oxygen molecules. What effect does this have?

A college student ascends to altitude and develops altitude sickness, but recovers within 24 hours. What is the most likely reason for recovery in that timeframe?

As a person ascends to high altitude, increased activity of the Rapoport-Luebering pathway:

What is necessary to maintain reduced levels of methaemoglobin in the erythrocyte?

Which form of the haemoglobin molecule has the lowest affinity for oxygen?

Amino acid substitutions on globin chains often alter the charge and mobility of the haemoglobin molecule. This is the principle behind which test?

A haemoglobin electrophoresis shows: 45% HbS, 46% HbC, 6% HbF, 3% HbA2. These results are consistent with:

How are the globin chain genes arranged?

Which of the following statements concerning abnormalities of Hb molecules is true?

Synthesis of abnormal haemoglobins results from:

Thalassaemias are characterised by:

Microcytic hypochromic anaemia can be seen in all of the following EXCEPT:

Hypochromic microcytic RBCs are NOT typically seen in:

Which one of these is NOT true of sickle cell anaemia?

Sickle cell anaemia means the individual:

One of these could give a definitive diagnosis of sickle cell anaemia:

Which one of the following is NOT true about sickle cell anaemia?

In sickle cell disease, which of the following is true?

Rank the following on the basis of quantity of HbS, starting with the least amount: (1) adult with sickle cell disease, (2) adult with sickle cell trait, (3) neonate with sickle cell disease.

The commonest clinical disorder resulting from an amino acid substitution in the globin chain is:

Haptoglobin can become depleted in:

A patient with anaemia due to increased extravascular haemolysis would likely show which lab result?

An anaemic patient has haemosiderinuria, increased serum bilirubin, and decreased haptoglobin. This indicates:

Which of the following is a feature of chronic extravascular haemolysis?

The following are features of intravascular haemolysis EXCEPT:

Spherocytosis is a common cause of inherited haemolytic anaemia. The most likely underlying cause is:

The following is true regarding hereditary spherocytosis:

When RBCs break into fragments, they are called schistocytes. These are seen in:

After seven days of treatment with sulfonamides, a patient's haemoglobin fell from 14.7 g/dL to 10 g/dL. The most likely cause of haemolysis is:

Concerning G6PD deficiency, which is correct?

In the pathogenesis of G6PD deficiency, which of the following is/are correct?

In G6PD deficiency, the reducing power used for detoxifying oxidant stressors is provided by:

NADPH is produced by the hexose monophosphate pathway (HMP) in the red blood cell. It is used mainly for:

The hexose monophosphate pathway increases the RBC's supply of:

The enzyme deficiency in the Embden-Meyerhof pathway responsible for most cases of hereditary nonspherocytic haemolytic anaemia is:

The Embden-Meyerhof pathway is vital in RBC metabolism because it:

Which of the following best describes the composition of Heinz bodies?

What cellular mechanism results in haemolysis due to G6PD deficiency?

Explain how Heinz body inclusions damage the erythrocyte membrane.

A young Italian male with fever, chills, malaise, and haemoglobinuria has anaemia with 2+ polychromasia, Heinz bodies, and confirmed G6PD deficiency. His serum EPO would be expected to be:

For the same G6PD-deficient patient (with primaquine exposure and negative malaria testing), serum haptoglobin is low. Why?

Which of the following cluster-of-differentiation molecules is involved in the pathogenesis of paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria (PNH)?

Which of the following mechanisms is correct in PNH?

All of the following statements about PNH are true EXCEPT:

Pathophysiology of PNH — all are true EXCEPT:

The following is NOT a feature of PNH:

Which one of the following names is NOT associated with the description of PNH?

All of the following are causes of non-immune haemolytic anaemia EXCEPT:

Which agent can be used to treat bleeding in von Willebrand disease and is also relevant supportive therapy discussed alongside haemolytic conditions?

A 55-year-old man presents with coke-coloured urine, abdominal discomfort, and mild jaundice, and a thrombotic microangiopathy (TMA) is suspected. Which is a common feature of TMAs?

Which of the following is NOT associated with thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)?

Warm autoimmune haemolytic anaemia (AIHA) — which statement is FALSE?

The following are true of autoimmune haemolytic anaemia EXCEPT:

Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia can be initiated by which of the following?

Which test detects haemolytic anaemia?

Intravascular haemolysis is the result of trauma to RBCs while in the circulation.

A 50-year-old male with frequent upper respiratory infections and subcutaneous petechiae has low haemoglobin and a dry-tap marrow aspirate. The most likely diagnosis is:

Which anaemia is classified as an inherited inability to properly use iron to synthesize haemoglobin?

One of these peripheral blood film findings is strongly suggestive of megaloblastic anaemia:

Typical peripheral blood film picture in megaloblastic anaemia could show:

One of these is NOT a peripheral blood film feature of megaloblastic anaemia:

Megaloblastic anaemia will NOT be caused by which of the following?

Which of the following is used in the treatment of megaloblastic anaemia?

Which of the following deoxyribonucleotide is affected by vitamin B12 and/or folate deficiency?

Which one of these statements is incorrect regarding pernicious anaemia?

Which hematologic disorder presents with diminished vibratory/position sense, poor balance, premature greying of hair, and later dementia?

Which hematologic disorder shows decreased Hb, a positive Schilling test, decreased gastric HCl, a positive Romberg test, and diminished vibratory/position sense?

Patients with pernicious anaemia are treated with:

Oral supplementation of vitamin B12 is an effective treatment for pernicious anaemia.

Vitamin B12 is absorbed in the:

Which statement is true regarding the absorption of oral iron supplements?

A 30-year-old strict vegetarian (no meat, fish, or milk products) presents with anaemia. The most likely deficiency is:

Koilonychia is a specific feature of:

A patient presents with pallor, fatigue, dyspnoea, koilonychia, and angular cheilosis. Which is NOT expected in the laboratory findings?

Vitamin B12 and folate deficiency share similar adverse effects, but what distinguishes one from the other?

Which finding is most likely to follow atrophic gastritis?

A patient with weakness of legs, arms, and trunk, tingling, and numbness that progressively worsens has macrocytic anaemia on peripheral smear. Which is NOT a cause of this condition?

Folic acid therapy can cause sickle cell anaemia.

Hydroxyurea increases haemoglobin (specifically HbF) production and decreases reticulocyte counts.

Hydroxyurea works mainly by:

Hydroxyurea increases serum uric acid levels.

Decitabine increases fetal haemoglobin production by inducing DNA methylation, thereby preventing the switch from gamma- to beta-globin production.

In Acute Myeloblastic Leukaemia (AML):

In Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia (ALL):

Which is the general cause underlying ALL?

Prognostic indicators at diagnosis in ALL include age and biologic properties of the blasts. Which of the following is another key prognostic indicator?

Which of the following is NOT a good prognostic factor in a patient with ALL?

A 4-year-old boy is lethargic with bone pain, elevated leukaemic blast cells, and marked splenomegaly, hepatomegaly, and lymphadenopathy. He most likely has:

Auer rods are typically seen in which form of leukaemia?

In FAB classification of AML, M4 represents:

Acute leukaemia clinical presentation includes all of the following EXCEPT:

Which of the following are used in the treatment of acute leukaemia EXCEPT:

A 60-year-old male has bruising, tiredness, finger-breadth splenomegaly, WBC 100×10■/L, platelets 900×10■/L, and numerous myelocytes with 4% blasts. This is most likely associated with:

A 42-year-old man has tiredness, breathlessness, nosebleeds, bruising, splenomegaly, and fundal haemorrhage, with pancytopenia and predominantly myeloblasts/promyelocytes on the film. Which investigation is of most prognostic value?

In chronic myeloid leukaemia, the accelerated phase could be signified by:

Gross/massive splenomegaly is a striking feature of which of the following?

The following are causes of massive splenomegaly EXCEPT:

A peripheral blood smear shows increased neutrophils, band cells, metamyelocytes, myelocytes, basophils, eosinophils, and platelets. This is most suggestive of:

A peripheral smear shows increased neutrophils, band cells, basophils, eosinophils, and platelets. This is most suggestive of which of these additional statements?

Regarding B-cell CLL, which is correct?

In chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL):

A 72-year-old male with enlarged superficial lymph nodes and mild hepatosplenomegaly is diagnosed with CLL. The most important diagnostic criterion is:

Which one of the following is NOT true of CLL?

Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia is characterised by peripheral blood and bone marrow:

Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia is characterised by gradual accumulation of small, mature cells of which lineage?

Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia is most common in which population?

In CLL, the lymphocyte nuclear chromatin appears hyper-condensed with a characteristic clumped pattern often described as resembling a:

Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia Rai staging: absolute lymphocytosis (>5000/mm³) without adenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly, anaemia, or thrombocytopenia is:

CLL Rai staging: absolute lymphocytosis without lymphadenopathy, without hepatosplenomegaly, anaemia, or thrombocytopenia is:

CLL Rai staging: absolute lymphocytosis and anaemia (Hb <11 g/dL), with or without organomegaly, is classically:

CLL Rai staging: absolute lymphocytosis and thrombocytopenia (<100,000/mm³), with or without lymphadenopathy, hepatomegaly, splenomegaly, or anaemia, is:

Conventional treatment for Rai stage II CLL is generally:

In patients with low numbers of neoplastic CLL cells (e.g. after treatment), PCR-based DNA amplification can improve sensitivity for detecting relapse.

CLL biology — which statement is INCORRECT?

The following are possible complications of CLL EXCEPT:

Clinical presentation of CLL includes all EXCEPT:

A 36-year-old woman with weakness and fatigue has a bone marrow aspirate showing 15% myeloblasts and reduced erythropoiesis. The most likely diagnosis is:

Myelodysplastic syndromes (MDS) are clonal stem cell disorders. Which FAB subtype carries the poorest prognosis?

Which of the following are markers for classical Hodgkin lymphoma?

Concerning Ann Arbor staging of Hodgkin lymphoma, which is correctly matched?

The commonest presentation of Hodgkin lymphoma is:

Which patient with Hodgkin lymphoma has the worst prognosis?

Approximately what percentage of patients are cured of Hodgkin lymphoma?

Which ONE of these is TRUE concerning the use of radiotherapy in Hodgkin lymphoma?

Which ONE of these is NOT true of Hodgkin lymphoma?

Which histological subtype of Hodgkin lymphoma is described by: "Collagen bands extend from the node capsule to encircle nodules; a characteristic lacunar cell variant of the Reed-Sternberg cell is often found"?

The typical Reed-Sternberg cells are infrequent or absent; instead, "popcorn cells" (lymphocytic and histiocytic cells) are seen amid predominantly benign lymphocytes. Which Hodgkin subtype does this describe?

True or false: nodular sclerosis is the most common type of Hodgkin lymphoma.

Which of the following subtypes of Hodgkin lymphoma is common in young women and carries a good prognosis?

Which of the following pathological features is true regarding non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL)?

The main presenting symptom of lymphomas is generally:

One difference between Hodgkin and non-Hodgkin lymphoma is that Hodgkin lymphoma is more classically associated with:

The median age of patients with non-Hodgkin lymphoma is approximately:

Which of the following is NOT a criterion in the International Prognostic Index for non-Hodgkin lymphoma?

Follicular lymphoma is characterised by which one of the following?

Which of the following subtypes of Hodgkin/NHL is characterised histologically by a "starry sky" appearance?

Which of the following is FALSE regarding Burkitt lymphoma?

Which of the following is wrongly paired?

Which of the following is a wrong combination regarding antigen expression by lymphoid tumours?

All of the following are T-cell diseases EXCEPT:

A single plasma cell secretes:

A plasma cell is:

A 75-year-old man diagnosed with multiple myeloma complains of severe bone pain. This pain is best attributed to:

Bony lesions in multiple myeloma include all EXCEPT:

Which one of the following is NOT a feature of multiple myeloma?

Kidney damage is common in multiple myeloma because:

What is the main difference between leukaemia and multiple myeloma (MM)?

Regarding multiple myeloma, which one of the following is true?

What organs/tissues are most affected in multiple myeloma?

Multiple myeloma patients may present with:

The following investigations are important to diagnose multiple myeloma EXCEPT:

Poor risk factors for multiple myeloma include:

For which disorder would appropriate nursing interventions include: no IM injections, no aspirin, and avoiding situations where injury might occur?

In which haematologic disorder are patients susceptible to infection and often have significant pain from bone involvement?

Which platelet count scenario applies: when platelet count is high, thrombopoietin (TPO) binds to:

Megakaryocyte development is regulated mainly by:

Components of platelet dense granules include all EXCEPT:

Alpha granules of platelets contain:

Platelet aggregation is important in haemostasis. Which statement is true for platelet aggregation in vascular injury?

Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) could be caused by:

The following is true about ITP:

One of these is a correct description of petechiae:

Which of the clotting factors listed has the shortest half-life?

Which of these is NOT a vitamin K-dependent factor?

A patient suffers from vitamin K deficiency. Which coagulation factor will NOT be affected?

A patient shows prolonged prothrombin time and activated partial thromboplastin time, with an otherwise normal blood test. The most likely diagnosis is:

Which of the following would cause an isolated prolongation of PT, with a normal APTT?

Concerning the cell-based model of coagulation, which statement is most correct?

Regarding coagulation, which of the following is correct?

Which statement is correct concerning the cascade vs. cell-based models of coagulation?

Von Willebrand factor (VWF) biology — which is correct?

Biology of Factor VIII — which is correct?

About Haemophilia A, which is correct?

In the pathogenesis of Haemophilia:

Haemophilia (general) — which is correct EXCEPT:

Which of the following is a less likely manifestation in haemophilia?

In haemophilia A:

About haemophilia — which is correct?

What's the most appropriate test to diagnose haemophilia?

One of these is NOT true of Von Willebrand disease:

Which of the following is NOT true of von Willebrand disease classification?

Inheritance pattern of von Willebrand disease is typically:

Which agent can be used to treat bleeding in von Willebrand disease?

Which of the following is part of the definitive diagnostic workup for von Willebrand disease?

The following are classical laboratory findings in disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) EXCEPT:

Which laboratory abnormality would you NOT expect to see in DIC?

Which of the following is NOT a typical feature of DIC?

Which statement is FALSE regarding disseminated intravascular coagulation?

Parenteral anticoagulants include:

Which of the following is FALSE regarding heparin?

Heparin is an anticoagulant produced by basophils (and mast cells). Its most likely mechanism of preventing blood clotting is by:

Isoenzymes of CYP2C9 can greatly affect warfarin metabolism/dosing.

Warfarin should be used with caution in which of the following?

Which drug can be used in patients sensitive/allergic to aspirin as an antiplatelet alternative?

This fatal disorder results from clot/thrombus formation in the circulation:

Homans' sign is classically described as pain behind the knee (on dorsiflexion of the foot), used historically in DVT assessment.

The total blood volume of a 50 kg man is approximately:

Which donor cells in an allogeneic haemopoietic stem cell transplant mediate the desirable graft-versus-leukaemia effect?

Following allogeneic stem cell transplant, acute graft-versus-host disease in the recipient is mediated by:

The most clinically significant blood group system (after ABO) is:

A patient with the Bombay blood group can only safely receive blood from:

Mr X (blood group A) marries Mrs Y (blood group AB). Which blood type cannot appear in their offspring?

A man of blood group AB marries a woman of blood group O. Which blood groups can appear in their children?

Naturally occurring (non-immune) antibodies include:

The Duffy blood group system:

Which of the following are causes of massive splenomegaly, drawing also on structural anatomy? Precursor forms of red blood cells include which progenitors?

Growth factors for neutrophils include:

Screening methods for transfusion-transmitted infections (TTI) include all of the following EXCEPT:

Transfusion-transmitted infections (TTI) include:

Which of the following individuals MUST be excluded from blood donation?

Prospective blood donors in this sub-region must be screened for all of the following EXCEPT:

Criteria for blood donor selection include:

Average volume of blood collected from each donor at a standard donation is approximately:

Concerning blood component storage:

Concerning blood components:

Components of cryoprecipitate include:

The following statement is true about blood and blood products:

Which of the following is NOT a complication of blood transfusion?

The following clinical features suggest a delayed haemolytic transfusion reaction EXCEPT:

Graft-versus-host disease is a complication of transfusion in bone marrow transplant patients. This is best avoided by:

Which one of the following infections is NOT routinely tested for in blood products?

Haemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN):

Which one of these disease conditions gives the most severe phenotype in HDFN?

Which statement is TRUE regarding HDFN?

Concerning HDFN, which one of the following statements is correct?

Concerning the lymph nodes, which of the following statements is true?

With regard to the ultrastructure of the lymph nodes, which of the following options is correct?

A child diagnosed with T-cell ALL has significant lymphadenopathy. Which part of the lymph node is most likely to be increased in size?

The spleen — which of the following is NOT true?

The spleen:

The following are functions of the spleen EXCEPT:

Splenic function includes all of the following EXCEPT:

About 30% of the total platelet mass is normally found in the:

The absolute neutrophil count (ANC) in a patient is found to be 1.2×10■/L. What grade of neutropenia does the patient have?

Which of the following is NOT a cause of neutrophil leucocytosis?

Defects in the neutrophil NADPH oxidase system result in:

Allergic reactions are frequently associated with an increase in the presence of:

Concerning polycythaemia rubra vera, which one of the following statements is correct?

Which one of the following is NOT a cause of polycythaemia?

Concerning essential thrombocythaemia, which one of the following is NOT part of the diagnostic criteria?

Which of the following is NOT a typical feature of primary myelofibrosis?

Which of the following symptoms follows the pathophysiology of haematopoiesis arrest (bone marrow failure) in leukaemia?

Why is splenomegaly commonly seen in patients with leukaemia?

Which one of these statements is TRUE regarding normal adult bone marrow?

Which one of the following does NOT cause pancytopenia?

The following are NOT consistent with bone marrow aplasia:

The site of haemopoiesis in the healthy adult is:

About haemoglobin (Hb) — which statement is correct?

Embryonic haemoglobins include:

The binding of an antibody with its epitope depends on all of the following EXCEPT:

Haptens are:

Poor immunogenicity may be exhibited by:

IgE antibody- and mast cell-mediated reactions to antigens causing rapid vascular leakage and mucosal secretion are the hallmark of:

Antigens — which of the following statements is correct?

Concerning immunoglobulins:

All of the following are true about the structure of immunoglobulin EXCEPT:

Which of the following is NOT true about IgG?

Which immunoglobulin is produced in the primary response to an antigen, fixes complement, and does not cross the placenta?

The only cell type that produces antibodies is:

Protection against microorganisms inside host cells is provided primarily by:

Which of the following is not correct about the structure of the major histocompatibility complex (MHC)?

Class III molecules of the MHC code for which of the following proteins?

Individuals possessing the class I MHC antigen HLA-B27 are approximately 90 times more likely to develop which disease?

HLA-DR4 positivity is associated with a higher risk of which conditions?

The classical and alternative complement pathways meet at complement component:

A 26-year-old woman with recurrent Neisserial infections is evaluated. She is most likely to have a deficiency of:

Deficiency of C3, the major opsonin, characteristically results in:

Primary deficiency of early classical pathway components (C1q, C1r, C1s, or C4) is closely linked to development of:

C1q recognises and binds to immunoglobulin complexed with antigen, initiating the complement cascade. Deficiency of C1q is particularly associated with:

Which of the following is a non-organ-specific (systemic) autoimmune disease?

Type III hypersensitivity reactions are characterised by:

Type IV hypersensitivity (cell-mediated immunity) involves:

In immune complex disorders, which of the following is true?

Which of the following is a disease of phagocytic dysfunction?

In autoimmunity, a key underlying feature is:

Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia can be initiated by:

Natural killer (NK) cells:

The principal phagocytes of the innate immune system are:

The substances that enhance the immune response to immunogens are called:

In the humoral response to virally infected cells, which of the following is FALSE?

Non-specific host defence against fungal infections includes all of the following EXCEPT:

All of the following may increase susceptibility to fungal infections EXCEPT:

Which is FALSE concerning the phases of the primary immune response?

Which of the following statements is NOT true about T-cell development?

M cells have all of the following qualities EXCEPT:

The following are cytotoxic drugs used for immunosuppression EXCEPT:

Concerning antigen presentation, which of the following is true?

Which of the following is the most prevalent primary immunodeficiency disease?

Secretory IgA protects external mucosal surfaces primarily by:

What deficiency is indicated by poor skin test results to a range of microbial antigens such as tuberculin and mumps antigen?

Phagocytes include all of the following EXCEPT:

Concerning bone marrow failure syndromes:

About lymph nodes, which is correct?

The following are disorders classified as myeloproliferative neoplasms EXCEPT:

An example of a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI) used in HIV treatment is:

Concerning HIV, which of the following is FALSE?

Which of the following combinations regarding immune-mediated (autoantibody-target) disease is NOT correct?

Concerning antibody response, which is FALSE?

Which fungus is notably resistant to intracellular killing by immune cells, allowing it to survive within macrophages?

Immunity against intracellular bacteria — which of the following is LEAST important?

Which of the following is FALSE regarding immunity to malaria infection?

Regarding hyper-IgM syndrome subtypes, which gene pairing is WRONG?

Tumours may evade the immune system through all of the following mechanisms EXCEPT:

Regarding the immune response to schistosomiasis, which statement is correct?

The following statements about the history of immunology are true EXCEPT:

Poor prognostic indices in non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL) include all of the following EXCEPT:

Risk factors associated with NHL include:

Concerning haemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn — which statement is correct?

Warm-antibody autoimmune haemolytic anaemia:

Concerning pre-natal diagnosis of sickle cell disease:

Alkylating anticancer drugs include:

Acute leukaemia — which statement is correct?

The following are true of induction chemotherapy for AML EXCEPT:

Precursor forms of red blood cells (erythroid-committed progenitors) include:

The following are true concerning bone marrow-related classification questions on anaemia — the site of haemopoiesis in the adult is:

In sickle cell disease, all of the following are true EXCEPT:

The following statements are FALSE concerning chronic lymphocytic leukaemia EXCEPT:

Concerning lymphomas in general:

In Hodgkin lymphoma:

What term means "formation of red blood cells"?

What is the term for a substance, part of bile, formed when red blood cells are broken down?

What term describes any type of injectable medication?

What measures the amount of oxygen-carrying haemoglobin inside red blood cells?

What measures the average size of red blood cells?

What term means "relating to bone marrow"?

What are stomach cells that produce hydrochloric acid called?

What is the term meaning "subconscious awareness of position, posture, movement, and changes in equilibrium"?

What is an autosomal recessive disorder in which an abnormal gene causes damage to the RBC membrane (in this teaching set, contrasted with other anaemias)?

What is an X-linked recessive disorder passed on so that it presents in males and rarely in females?

Which haematologic disorder occurs when a person is missing a coagulation factor essential for normal blood clotting?

Which haematologic disorder is a malignancy of plasma cells causing excessive plasma cells in the bone marrow?

What term describes a disorder that may be due to blood loss, RBC destruction/hemolysis, nutritional deficiency, lack of RBC production, or bone marrow failure?

Which haematologic disorder presents with infections due to low white cell production, bruising (ecchymosis), tiny subcutaneous haemorrhages (petechiae), and mucosal bleeding?

For which haematologic disorder would nursing interventions include protecting the patient from falls, avoiding IM injections (due to altered clotting), and reducing risk of cuts and bleeding?

Which haematologic disorder is typically treated with oral iron supplements?

While patients are on immunosuppressive therapy post-bone marrow transplant, important patient teaching includes:

Treatment for sickle cell anaemia is aimed at maintaining blood flow to smaller vessels and diminishing excess RBC production by the bone marrow.

True or false: chronic leukaemia is characterised by mature white cells in the blood.