1\. On Enterobacteriaceae, which of the following bacteria is an opportunistic pathogen?
Q2.
With reference to infections with Escherichia coli the following are true except
Q3.
The herpes group of viruses includes the following except?
Q4.
Concerning enteric fever caused by Salmonella typhi and S.paratyphi, which of the following is Not a possible specimen taken for the diagnosis of the disease?
Q5.
This organism is known to cause epidemics of bloody dysentery
Q6.
As the house officer in Obstetrics and Gynaecology, you met a 25 year old newly wedded lady who complained of burning sensation when passing urine. What is this condition called?
Q7.
What is the most likely causative organism for the condition described above
Q8.
Haemophilus influenzae are mainly categorized into serotype and nonserotype, which of the following component is present in the serotype H.influenzae?
Q9.
Concerning Bordetella pertussis, the pentavalent vaccine consists of the following combinations:
Q10.
One of these flagellates causes non-gonococcal urethritis (NGU) in men, its diagnostic form is
Q11.
Concerning Poliovirus:
Q12.
Haemophilus influenzae type b vaccine (Hib) is intended to prevent bacterial infection caused by the bacterium. The infectious vaccine should be completed at which of the following age group of the children?
Q13.
Which of these classes of Arthropods are of medical importance?
Q14.
The following are major blood and tissue Nematodes:
Q15.
Which of the following virus infection is transmitted by the faeco-oral route?
Q16.
Which of these Filarial worms is correctly paired with its vector?
Q17.
Malaria parasites infecting humans belong to these species, and the most dangerous of them is:
Q18.
Malaria is seasonal and unstable and usually occurs at altitudes less than:
Q19.
One of the following statements is true about Campylobacter jejuni
Q20.
Thermophilic campylobacters\' grow best at
Q21.
Concerning H. pylori
Q22.
Which of these virulence factor for H.pylori can be easily demonstrated in the Medical Laboratory
Q23.
Characteristics of anaerobes include the following except
Q24.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa produces the following pigments except
Q25.
Acinetobacter baumannii has the following characteristics except
Q26.
Concerning viral haemorrhagic fever
Q27.
Virus that can cause sexually-transmitted diseases is?
Q28.
Concerning taenia saginata
Q29.
Concerning taenia solium
Q30.
Concerning hepatitis virus infection
Q31.
Concerning Mpox infection
Q32.
The following statements are the general biologic properties of Human Herpes viruses EXCEPT
Q33.
Epidemiology of Herpes simplex viruses
Q34.
One of the following is the sexual forms of toxoplasma gondii
Q35.
Measles virus
Q36.
One of the following incubation period is correctly matched
Q37.
The following is not true of acquired antimicrobial resistance
Q38.
For primary isolation of N meningitidis a chocolate agar base containing antimicrobial supplement is mainly used. Which antimicrobial is not usually present in the supplement?
Q39.
The 3rd moment of hand washing is:
Q40.
Concerning dengue fever
Q41.
Concerning hepatitis B virus
Q42.
Concerning mumps
Q43.
A common characteristic of fungi that cause systemic mycoses is that they are
Q44.
Which of the following is not a dermatophyte
Q45.
A 4 year old man with AIDS develops painful thick white exudates on the surface of his tongue and posterior pharynx. Gram stain reveals a gram positive organism 2 to 3 times as large as Staphylococcus aureus. Which organism is likely to be responsible for the man\'s infection
Q46.
In a case of meningitis, Gram staining of the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) showed large gram positive spherical cells much larger than bacterial cells. Indian ink staining procedure showed capsules around the cells. The pathogen is most likely to be
Q47.
Concerning Polymerase Chain Reaction
Q48.
The following organisms are commensal of the oral cavity except:
Q49.
About Periodontal diseases:
Q50.
What is the most important endotoxin component leading to septic shock from Gram-negative bacteria?
Q51.
About Streptococcus pyogenes:
Q52.
A Gram positive cocci in chains with partial haemolysis on blood agar and optocin sensitive is likely to be:
Q53.
Toxoplasma
Q54.
The quality management system applicable to the medical laboratory is contained in the ISO
Q55.
The full meaning of the acronym ISO is
Q56.
The following species of mycobacteria are members of the MTC
Q57.
This cell is able to kill intracellular mycobacterial bacilli within the granuloma
Q58.
Buruli ulcer is caused by
Q59.
What is AIDS?
Q60.
U=U is a concept in HIV medicine. What does it mean?
Q61.
In 95-95-95 concept in HIV program, the second 95 refers to
Q62.
A 23-year-old woman was referred with a 1-week history of fever, malaise, night sweats and painful joints. Two weeks previously she had had a sore throat. On examination, her temperature was 38.2°C pulse 110 beats per minute, blood pressure 105/65mmHg. She had a pan-systolic murmur, her chest was clear on auscultation. Her right wrist and left knee were hot, swollen and painful. Investigations: serum C-reactive protein- 221mg/L (\<10) Anti-streptolysin O titre - 1600. Echocardiogram- evidence of pericardial effusion with mitral regurgitation. Rheumatic fever is considered as a diagnosis. Which of the modified Duckett-Jones criteria are fulfilled to confirm the diagnosis?
Q63.
A 35-year-old woman presented with a 3-day history of productive cough, breathlessness and rigors. She was treated empirically with intravenous vancomycin. What is the site of action of vancomycin?
Q64.
A 24-year-old Liberian man presented with a 4-day history of fever and headache. He had lived in the Nigeria for 13 years but had visited Liberia to attend a funeral, returning to the Nigeria 2 days previously. On examination, his temperature was 39.0°C, his pulse was 120 bpm and blood pressure was 100/70mmHg. There was active bleeding around venipuncture sites. Investigations: malaria film negative. In addition to hand hygiene, what other infection control measures are most appropriate?
Q65.
A 75 year old man with cardiac pacemaker was seen in the cardiologic clinic after presenting with high grade fever and he was admitted for infective endocarditis. His blood was collected for culture and the specimen was forwarded to the laboratory. Select the culture medium which would be most appropriate to isolate Staphylococcus epidermidis from this patient.
Q66.
A male baby was born to HIV positive mother who ate cheese at 36 weeks gestation and had gastroenteritis. The baby had a petechial rash, low birth weight, hepatosplenomegaly. This is thought to be due to an infection acquired while the baby was still in utero. Select the condition which is most likely to cause this clinical presentation.
Q67.
Concerning Legionella pneumophila
Q68.
A newly recruited military man walked into the GOPD with severe cough, fever and malaise. The cough is worse at night and associated with blood tinged sputum. A diagnosis of severe community acquired pneumonia was made. Investigations- Chest X-ray showed multiple lobes involvement without consolidation. Which is the likely organisms?
Q69.
The name Woolsorter\'s disease refers to infection caused by which organism:
Q70.
Concerning Vibrio cholera infection:
Q71.
Concerning bacterial cell structure, the main constituent of Gram positive cell wall is
Q72.
Which of the following are constituents of peptidoglycan?
Q73.
Teichoic acid is present in
Q74.
The outer membrane of gram negative bacteria is made up of
Q75.
Which of these statements about plasmids is incorrect?
Q76.
Which of the following describes the arrangement of flagella in bacteria?
Q77.
On bacterial metabolism, an organism that obtains its energy from the transfer of electrons originating from chemical compounds and its carbon from an inorganic source is called?
Q78.
Which is not a laboratory procedure in Medical Microbiology
Q79.
One of the following is a Basic stain
Q80.
Which one of these is NOT an Acidic stain
Q81.
Bacterial growth can be measured by
Q82.
A component of the cell membrane of most fungi is?
Q83.
The following are azoles except?
Q84.
In serological diagnosis of fungal infections, Latex agglutination test is best for detection of which of the following?
Q85.
Classification of fungal diseases are based on the following except?
Q86.
Which of the following is not found in all viruses?
Q87.
The following Are characteristics of Mycotic infections except?
Q88.
Concerning Sexual spores, which is false?
Q89.
Talking about sexual spores, the following are correct except?
Q90.
The following are true of conidia produced by fungi except?
Q91.
Medical Parasitology can be defined as
Q92.
Parasites can be defined as
Q93.
A host that harbours a parasite in the adult stage or where the parasite undergoes a sexual method of reproduction is known as
Q94.
A host that serves as a temporary refuge and vehicle for reaching an obligatory host is known as a
Q95.
Concerning the structure of Viruses
Q96.
The following Physico-chemical Parameters are used to classify viruses into families EXCEPT
Q97.
A 54-year-old male presents with fever, tachycardia and hypotension. A blood culture is taken and becomes positive in 12 hours. The Gram stain was done on the isolate. Which of the components of the Gram stain is a fixative?
Q98.
The typical viral replication cycle follows the order of arrangement below:
Q99.
Spirochaetes
Q100.
Pathology is
Q101.
The Father of Immunology is known as;
Q102.
The Father of Handwashing is known as;
Q103.
Concerning Laboratory Diagnosis of T. pallidum infections, one of the following is a Non Treponemal test
Q104.
Which of the following best describe Diphtheria:
Q105.
A 29-year-old female presents in the 33rd week of gestation with a temperature of 38.8°C 1 day after having several episodes of diarrhoea. The organism isolated from her stool showed tumbling motility at 4°C in the fridge. What is the most likely organism?
Q106.
A 75-year-old female presents with urosepsis and is prescribed an aminoglycoside. What is the bactericidal mode of action of aminoglycosides?
Q107.
The acute versus the chronic infections of this virus can be detected by specific antibody levels:
Q108.
Which of the following is correct about health care associated infections:
Q109.
Enterobacteriaceae
Q110.
One of the following culture media is best for the isolation of Enterobacteriaceae
Q111.
Enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC) are nonmotile, non-lactose, or late lactose fermenters which are predominantly found in developing countries infecting children and travelers. Which of the following infection is similar to the EIEC infection?
Q112.
Based on your chosen sample in the above question, the best medium for isolation of the suspected organism is
Q113.
What is the likely causative organism for the condition described above
Q114.
Concerning Haemophilus specie, the one responsible for invasive infections is
Q115.
Arthropods are
Q116.
Common disease symptoms seen with Wuchereria bancrofti are
Q117.
This is a common feature of blood and tissue Nematodes
Q118.
Some gram-negative bacteria are a part of normal inhabitants and incidentally cause disease but others such as\... are an important pathogen and the common cause of foodborne and waterborne illnesses all around the world.
Q119.
One of the following is a characteristic of Trematodes
Q120.
A 21-year-old female presents with necrotising fasciitis. Which of the following is not a virulence factor of Staphylococcus aureus?
Q121.
A 16-year-old female presents with a sore throat and a beta-haemolytic Streptococcus is grown. Which of the following species is a Group A Streptococcus?
Q122.
What are the three criteria that comprise the qSOFA?
Q123.
A 27-year-old male presents with enteritis. From a stool sample a yellow colony is growing on thiosulfate-citrate-bile-sucrose (TCBS) agar. What is the likely diagnosis?
Q124.
A 56-year-old male is diagnosed with native valve endocarditis. A blood culture grows a Gram-positive cocci on both blood agar and MacConkey agar, which is ampicillin resistant. What is the likely identification of this organism?
Q125.
A 26-year-old male presents 3 days after a dog bite. What diagnostic test aids with ascertaining exposure to rabies?
Q126.
A 22-year-old newly wedded female presents with dysuria, frequency and urgency 5 days after wedding. What is the likely cause of her urinary tract infections?
Q127.
HIV has a genetic material which is
Q128.
The most specific test for HIV diagnosis is
Q129.
Concerning the spread of HIV
Q130.
Lamivudine and Emtricitabine belong to which class of anti-retroviral drugs
Q131.
A reservoir for rabies is which of the following?
Q132.
Shigellosis is caused by Shigella dysenteriae in humans causing fever, abdominal cramps, diarrhea sometimes blood. Which of these toxins is responsible for the infection?
Q133.
A needle stick injury can be avoided with standard precaution. What is transmission rate of HIV in percentage?
Q134.
An example of NRTI for HIV treatment is
Q135.
The following are structural proteins of the HIV except
Q136.
For Aspergillus infections
Q137.
Subcutaneous mycosis is associated with which of these organisms?
Q138.
Candida albicans: The following are false except
Q139.
The first antibiotic discovered in the world was:
Q140.
The following are bacteriostatic antibiotics except
Q141.
Inhibitors of cell wall synthesis include the following except
Q142.
Concerning syphilis
Q143.
The following are true of prions diseases except:
Q144.
The most frequently identified cause of acute infective diarrhoea in most industrialized countries causing much morbidity and economic loss
Q145.
Explosive food poisoning outbreaks is said to be rare in this organism because it does not multiply in food
Q146.
Concerning enteric fever caused by Salmonella typhi and S.paratyphi, which of the following is Not a possible specimen taken for the diagnosis of the disease?
Q147.
Abdominal pain and diarrhoea are the main symptoms of the following infections
Q148.
The following are part of the complications of Campylobacteriosis
Q149.
A form of peripheral polyneuropathy that causes serious and potentially fatal paralysis lasting for several months seen with Campylobacter infection is called?
Q150.
Cloudiness is a sign that bacteria have grown in one of the following after Inoculation and incubation.
Q151.
A Gram stained smear showing a motile gull-winged shaped organism that grows only in a selective media at 42°C, reduced O2 and a capnophilic environment, oxidase and catalase positive is most likely
Q152.
A spiral shaped gram-negative rod that is strictly micro-aerophilic, requires carbon dioxide, a rich growth media and strongly Urease positive, is most likely
Q153.
The following are true of Acinetobacter species except
Q154.
The survival of Helicobacter pylori in the acidic environment of the stomach is made possible by
Q155.
One of the most common sexually transmitted infections and the leading cause of genital ulcers is
Q156.
Which type of human herpes virus is oncogenic?
Q157.
The treatment of choice in herpetic Infection is
Q158.
The following are arthropod mediated bacterial diseases EXCEPT
Q159.
The following are arthropod mediated parasitic diseases EXCEPT
Q160.
The more pathogenic species of blood and tissue Nematode includes
Q161.
This organism is known to cause epidemics of bloody dysentery
Q162.
The following microfilaria worms are sheathed
Q163.
This statement is NOT TRUE about the blood and tissue Nematodes
Q164.
Concerning the treatment of filariasis, which is effective against both the microfilaria and adult worm presently in use includes
Q165.
The following are the general characteristics of Trematodes EXCEPT
Q166.
Concerning chancroid, the following statements are true except
Q167.
What is a Quelling reaction?
Q168.
The preventive measure for Bordetella pertussis infection is the vaccination method, according to the current National Programme of Routine Immunization in Nigeria, the pertussis vaccine is usually administered in combination with toxoids of the following
Q169.
Concerning the stages of Pertussis, one of the following statements is true
Q170.
Concerning mumps virus
Q171.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Q172.
Concerning the order Spirochaetales
Q173.
This treponemal disease can be transmitted person-to-person by contaminated eating utensil
Q174.
Which of the following is not a subcutaneous infective agent (mycosis)?
Q175.
Which is a cutaneous mycosis infective agent?
Q176.
On candidiasis:
Q177.
Exanthem can be described with the following presentations
Q178.
The following are emerging disease except
Q179.
The following is correct about cholera
Q180.
Trematodes transmitted through skin penetration include
Q181.
The following biochemical tests are used to differentiate between species of Haemophilus except
Q182.
Concerning Coxsackie viruses:
Q183.
Which of the following do not prove to be helpful for the treatment of the disease \"whooping cough\"?
Q184.
Chickenpox
Q185.
Acinetobacter are characterised by
Q186.
Concerning hepatitis C virus
Q187.
Concerning Lassa fever virus
Q188.
Concerning Corynebacterium species, which of the following is correct?
Q189.
Concerning influenza viruses
Q190.
The influenza virus serotype that causes most of the epidemics is:
Q191.
Listeria monocytogenes
Q192.
The gold standard for diagnosis of Toxoplasma gondii infection is:
Q193.
The portion of the growth curve where rapid growth of bacteria is observed is known as
Q194.
The vector for Loa loa is
Q195.
One of the stages below is not included in the life cycle of malaria parasite in man:
Q196.
A 28-year-old female presents with necrotising fasciitis. Which of the following is not a virulence factor of Staphylococcus aureus?
Q197.
A 27-year-old male presents with enteritis. Isolate from the stool sample yielded a yellow colony on thiosulfate-citrate-bile-sucrose (TCBS) agar. What is the likely diagnosis?
Q198.
A 33-year-old male presents 3 days after a dog bite. What diagnostic test aids with ascertaining exposure to rabies?
Q199.
A 22-year-old newly wedded female presents with dysuria, frequency and urgency 5 days after wedding. What is the likely cause of her urinary tract infection?
Q200.
Concerning hepatitis C virus
Q201.
Which of the following is the PRIMARY portal of entry for most systemic mycoses?
Q202.
Concerning History of Medical Microbiology, Which of the following is correctly matched?
Q203.
The term \"Black Death\" refers to an epidemic caused by
Q204.
The presence of a capsule around bacterial cells usually indicates their increased disease-causing potential and resistance to disinfection. Capsules are generally viewed by:
Q205.
Concerning bacterial growth cycle, \"Lag phase\" is also known as
Q206.
Most human pathogens prefer temperatures near that of the human body. They are called
Q207.
Which of the following media is best suited for the initial evaluation of colonies of Enterobacteriaceae?
Q208.
Isolate from blood culture reveals gram-positive cocci growing in clusters. Which of the following tests would be most useful in determining whether this organism is a part of the normal skin flora?
Q209.
Each of the following statements concerning Giardia lamblia is correct EXCEPT:
Q210.
A 70-year-old man who is receiving chemotherapy for leukemia developed septic shock. Which of the following components is MOST likely to be the cause of his septic shock?
Q211.
Which of these is not true of phagocytosis?
Q212.
As the house officer in Obstetrics and Gynaecology, you met a 28 year old sexually active lady who complained of dysuria. Dry, pink colonies were observed on MacConkey agar after overnight incubation. Gram reaction revealed gram negative rods. What is the most likely causative organism for the condition described above?
Q213.
Concerning the five moments of Hand Hygiene the following is true:
Q214.
Mr Peter, a 65 year old known type 2 diabetic, presented with shortness of breath, decreased level of consciousness and warm, clammy extremities. His temperature is 38.5°C, systolic blood pressure 95 mmHg, and respiratory rate is 27 cycles/minute. I am concerned that the patient is septic. What is his qSOFA score?
Q215.
A 50 year old man is seen in the respiratory clinic for regular review of his cystic fibrosis. He has a productive cough and a specimen is forwarded to the laboratory. Which of the following would be most appropriate to isolate Pseudomonas aeruginosa from this patient?
Q216.
This describes Periodontal diseases:
Q217.
The Polymerase Chain Reaction:
Q218.
The influenza virus has complicated genetics mainly characterised by which of the following?
Q219.
A 4 year old female was brought into the children emergency ward with symptoms suggestive of meningitis. A lumbar puncture was done and sent to the laboratories. The resident clinical microbiologist within 45 minutes sent in a presumptive result; CSF cell count: 30--40 WBC/HPF mainly neutrophils, Gram stain shows a Gram negative bacilli. Which of the following organisms do you think is probable?
Q220.
Which of these media is appropriate for the selection and differentiation of E. coli O157:H7 in stool specimens?
Q221.
Which of these organisms lack mitochondria?
Q222.
Mode of action of endotoxins
Q223.
Exotoxins are typically
Q224.
Phases of bacterial growth curve include the following except
Q225.
Concerning transduction
Q226.
Fimbriae present on outer surface of bacteria are used for
Q227.
Campylobacter jejuni is most need for
Q228.
Some anaerobes are particularly susceptible to oxygen because they lack the enzyme
Q229.
Which of these specimens would be inappropriate for anaerobic culture?
Q230.
Which of these bacteria is a common member of normal flora in the gut?
Q231.
Concerning History of Medical Microbiology, the event that triggered the development and establishment of microbiology as a science is the
Q232.
Which of the following is correctly matched?
Q233.
Which one of the following statements is the MOST accurate comparison of human, bacterial, and fungal cells?
Q234.
On Enterobacteriaceae, which of the following is NOT a major characteristic?
Q235.
Each of the following statements concerning endotoxins is correct EXCEPT:
Q236.
Each of the following statements concerning exotoxins are correct EXCEPT:
Q237.
An 81-year-old woman who is receiving chemotherapy for leukemia develops a fever of 40°C, associated with chills. Her blood pressure drops to 80/20 mmHg and is unresponsive to fluid challenge. Which one of these is the MOST likely diagnosis?
Q238.
Which of the following is an example of a primary intestinal pathogen in the family Enterobacteriaceae?
Q239.
Which type of Escherichia coli produces dysentery with bowel penetration and destruction of intestinal mucosa?
Q240.
Concerning Yersinia spp
Q241.
A 75-year-old man is hospitalized for an infection and treated with clindamycin. The patient improves and returns to his nursing home. Two weeks later he is rushed to the emergency room with fever and loose, mucoid green stools. The diarrhea is voluminous, and he is having severe abdominal pain. Sigmoidoscopy of his colon reveals yellow-white plaques. What is the single most likely event/factor that contributed to this patient\'s current illness?
Q242.
Concerning PCR, \"Thermus aquaticus\" is the source of
Q243.
A 28-year-old woman presents to her gynecologist with complaints of a malodorous vaginal discharge. Upon examination, a thin, gray vaginal discharge was observed. A whiff test was positive for an amine odor. Which of the following is consistent with this case?
Q244.
Each of the following statements concerning the fluorescent treponemal antibody-absorbed (FTA-ABS) test for syphilis is correct EXCEPT:
Q245.
With reference to infections with Escherichia coli the following are true except
Q246.
A 20-year-old woman presents with a history of vaginal discharge for the past 3 days. On pelvic examination, you see a mucopurulent exudate at the cervical os, and there is tenderness on palpation of the right fallopian tube. You do a Gram stain and culture on the cervical discharge. The culture is done on Thayer-Martin medium. Of the following, which findings are the MOST likely to be found?
Q247.
Each of the following is associated with Streptococcus agalactiae EXCEPT:
Q248.
Several pathogens are transmitted either during gestation or at birth. Which one of the following is LEAST likely to be transmitted at these times?
Q249.
Regarding Chlamydiae, which one of the following is MOST accurate?
Q250.
A 25-year-old man complains of a urethral discharge. You perform a Gram stain on a specimen of the discharge and see neutrophils but no bacteria. Of the organisms listed, the one MOST likely to cause the discharge is:
Q251.
Each of the following statements concerning Treponema is correct EXCEPT:
Q252.
Which one of the following is NOT an important characteristic of either Neisseria gonorrhoeae or Neisseria meningitidis?
Q253.
A 30-year-old woman with systemic lupus erythematosus is found to have a positive serologic test for syphilis (VDRL test). She denies having had sexual contact with a partner who had symptoms of a venereal disease. The next best step would be to:
Q254.
Each of the following statements concerning Chlamydia trachomatis is correct EXCEPT:
Q255.
A 5 year old boy is seen in the paediatric respiratory clinic for regular review of his cystic fibrosis. He has a productive cough and a specimen is forwarded to the laboratory. Which of the following is an enriched culture medium which would be most appropriate to isolate Haemophilus influenzae from this patient?
Q256.
A 75-year-old female presents with urosepsis and is prescribed an aminoglycoside. What is the bactericidal mode of action of aminoglycosides?
Q257.
A 54-year-old male presents with fever, tachycardia and hypotension. A blood culture is taken and becomes positive in 12 hours. The Gram stain was done on the isolate. Which of the components of the Gram stain is a fixative?
Q258.
The sexual spores of many fungi are called:
Q259.
A farmer in Ogoini presents with a chronic cough. Chest x-ray reveals an opaque mass. Biopsy of the lung shows macrophages with multiple yeast forms. Which one of the following diagnoses is most likely?
Q260.
A child contracted ringworm infection probably from a house pet since on culturing of the hair, a white wooly fungus grew. The colony turned yellowish brown on longer incubation. Microscopy showed large spindle shaped multicellular macroconidia with spikes. The pathogen is probably.
Q261.
A 24 year old man with AIDS develops painful thick white exudates on the surface of his tongue and posterior pharynx. Gram stain reveals a gram positive organism 2 to 3 times as large as Staphylococcus aureus. Which organism is likely to be responsible for the man\'s infection?
Q262.
Candida albicans: Which is correct?
Q263.
Candida albicans, which is false?
Q264.
Aspergillus species: Which is correct?
Q265.
The most specific test for HIV diagnosis is
Q266.
The following criteria are used to identify the larvae of blood and tissues nematodes EXCEPT.
Q267.
The current hepatitis A vaccine is
Q268.
Concerning Pseudomonas spp.
Q269.
Concerning chicken pox
Q270.
Pathogenesis of viral haemorrhagic fever
Q271.
All of the following are the major virulence factors present in H. influenzae, except?
Q272.
Still on the current National Programme of Routine Immunization in Nigeria, how many doses of the pertussis vaccine are recommended for children?
Q273.
Cestode in which man act as both definitive and intermediate organism include:
Q274.
Adult worms of the following cestodes are seen in the intestine of man except
Q275.
The properties of Orthomyxoviridae include the following statements, EXCEPT:
Q276.
Which of the following analytes is likely to be detected first in Covid 19?
Q277.
One of the classes of HAART for HIV include
Q278.
Resistance in many gram negative bacteria is the result of the production of extended spectrum beta lactamases (ESBLs). Which of the following classes are not inactivated by ESBLs?
Q279.
Mechanism of action of exotoxin A of pseudomonas aeruginosa is
Q280.
Shigellosis is caused by Shigella dysenteriae in humans causing fever, abdominal cramps, diarrhea sometimes blood. Which of these toxins is responsible for the infection?
Q281.
Which of the following is most accurate about ebola virus?
Q282.
Tzanck smear of scraping from a vesicle on the skin reveals multinucleated giant cells. Which virus is associated with this?
Q283.
A 24 years old nurse is admitted to hospital for jaundice and found to have hepatitis C virus. The major risk factor is
Q284.
A 30 years old Man is found to be both HBsAg positive and HBeAg positive. The man most likely has
Q285.
The bacterial envelope includes all of the following structures except
Q286.
A shiny, sticky colony of streptococcus pneumoniae is likely to be
Q287.
Which of the following are characteristics of gram-positive bacteria?
Q288.
Enterobacteriaceae
Q289.
One of the following culture media is best for the isolation of Enterobacteriaceae
Q290.
Enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC) are nonmotile, non-lactose, or late lactose fermenters which are predominantly found in developing countries infecting children and travelers. Which of the following infection is similar to the EIEC infection?
Q291.
As the house officer in Obstetrics and Gynaecology, you met a 28 year old pregnant woman with complaints of loin pain and fever (temperature 39°C). Which one of the following is the single most important specimen you would collect?
Q292.
Based on your chosen sample in the above question, the best medium for isolation of suspected organism is
Q293.
What is the likely causative organism for the condition described above?
Q294.
Concerning Haemophilus specie, the one responsible for invasive infections is
Q295.
On Enterobacteriaceae, which of the following bacteria is an opportunistic pathogen?
Q296.
Concerning Bordetella pertussis, the pentavalent vaccine consists of the following combinations:
Q297.
One of these flagellates causes non-gonococcal urethritis (NGU) in men, its diagnostic form is
Q298.
Concerning Polio virus,
Q299.
Haemophilus influenzae type b vaccine (Hib) is the preventive measure for the control of the infections caused by the bacteria, the Hib vaccine should usually be complete at which of the following age group of the children?
Q300.
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the causative agent of the chancroid, one of the most common sexually transmitted diseases and is characterized by painful lesions and genital ulcers?
Q301.
Arthropods are
Q302.
The following are the classes of Arthropods of medical importance
Q303.
The following are blood and tissue Nematodes
Q304.
Common disease symptoms seen with Wuchereria bancrofti are
Q305.
This is a common feature of blood and tissue Nematodes
Q306.
One of the following is a characteristic of Trematodes
Q307.
A 16-year-old female presents with a sore throat and a beta-haemolytic Streptococcus is grown. Which of the following species is a Group A Streptococcus?
Q308.
What are the three criteria that comprise the qSOFA?
Q309.
A 56-year-old male is diagnosed with native valve endocarditis. A blood culture grows a Gram-positive cocci on both blood agar and MacConkey agar, which is ampicillin resistant. What is the likely identification of this organism?
Q310.
HIV has a genetic material which is
Q311.
Concerning the spread of HIV
Q312.
Lamivudine and Emtricitabine belong to which class of anti-retroviral drugs?
Q313.
The following is not true of acquired antimicrobial resistance
Q314.
For primary isolation of N. meningitidis, a chocolate agar base containing antimicrobial supplement is usually used. Which antimicrobial is not usually present in the supplement?
Q315.
Concerning dengue fever
Q316.
Concerning hepatitis B virus
Q317.
Concerning mumps virus
Q318.
With regards to mycotic infections:
Q319.
Which of the following is not a dermatophyte?
Q320.
On candidosis;
Q321.
The following organisms are commensal of the oral cavity except:
Q322.
About Streptococcus pyogenes:
Q323.
A Gram positive cocci in chains with partial haemolysis on blood agar and optochin sensitive is likely to be:
Q324.
Toxoplasma
Q325.
Some gram-negative bacteria are a part of normal inhabitants and incidentally cause disease but others such as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ are an important pathogen and the common cause of foodborne and waterborne illnesses all around the world.
Q326.
As the house officer in Obstetrics and Gynaecology, you met a 25 year old newly wedded lady who complained of burning sensation when passing urine. What is this condition called?
Q327.
What is the most likely causative organism for the condition described above?
Q328.
Based on your chosen response, the best medium for isolation of the suspected organism is
Q329.
Haemophilus influenzae are mainly categorized into serotype and nonserotype, which of the following component is present in the serotype H. influenzae?
Q330.
Trematodes transmitted through skin penetration include
Q331.
In a case of meningitis, Gram staining of the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) showed large gram positive spherical cells much larger than bacterial cells. Indian ink staining procedure showed capsules around the cells. The pathogen is most likely to be:
Q332.
Concerning Polymerase Chain Reaction
Q333.
The quality management system applicable to the medical laboratory is contained in the ISO
Q334.
The full meaning of the acronym ISO is
Q335.
Each of the following statements concerning bacterial spores is correct EXCEPT:
Q336.
Bacterial surface structures that show antigenic diversity include each of the following EXCEPT:
Q337.
Which of these organisms is likely to be the cause of infection following criminal abortion?
Q338.
Which of the following is a gram‑variable anaerobe?
Q339.
Which of the following is a food‑poisoning gram‑positive bacterium?
Q340.
Which of the following is an anaerobic gram‑positive bacillus?
Q341.
The following is an anaerobic gram‑positive coccus:
Q342.
The natural habitat of Bacteroides fragilis is?
Q343.
Causes of infective diarrhoea include?
Q344.
A nosocomial infection is an infection that can be acquired through the following routes except?
Q345.
In Gram‑staining procedure, which is true?
Q346.
About Gram staining; which one of the following statements is correct?
Q347.
Counter stains in Gram‑staining method are the following except?
Q348.
In Ziehl--Neelsen staining principles, which is true?
Q349.
Looking under the microscope:
Q350.
Nosocomial infections include, which is false?
Q351.
Factors predisposing to opportunistic infections include all of the following except?
Q352.
The following may show evidence of virus-infection except?
Q353.
The following are major differences between Staphylococcus and Streptococcus except?
Q354.
Staphylococcus species can cause the following infections except?
Q355.
The following infections are caused by Staphylococcus aureus except?
Q356.
The following are true about Staphylococcus except?
Q357.
The following are true of Staphylococcus except?
Q358.
Principles of infection control include all of the following except?
Q359.
It is true to say that:
Q360.
Talking about disinfectants, which is correct?
Q361.
Organic materials interfere markedly with the bactericidal action of which?
Q362.
Staphylococcus aureus
Q363.
Staphylococcus aureus
Q364.
The following antimicrobial drugs are effective against penicillinase‑producing staphylococci:
Food implicated in staphylococcal food poisoning include all of the following except?
Q369.
The following are correct about Staphylococcus
Q370.
Staphylococcal skin infections include all of the following except?
Q371.
Concerning Staphylococcus aureus, which of the following is correct?
Q372.
Staphylococcal food poisoning: which of the following is false?
Q373.
Concerning Staphylococcus aureus, which of the following is NOT correct?
Q374.
Concerning the Staphylococcus, which is false?
Q375.
Quellung test will be positive for these organisms
Q376.
Concerning Staphylococcus aureus, which is false?
Q377.
Concerning Staphylococcus saprophyticus, which is false?
Q378.
Concerning the Staphylococcus, which is false?
Q379.
Virulence factors of Staphylococcus aureus include all of the following except?
Q380.
Staphylococcus: The following are coagulase‑positive
Q381.
The anti‑phagocytic property of the group A Streptococcus is associated with which of the following?
Q382.
Rheumatic fever and glomerulonephritis may be associated with infection of:
Q383.
Which factor is important for Streptococcus pneumoniae virulence?
Q384.
Streptococci may be differentiated from Staphylococcus by:
Q385.
Members of the genus Streptococcus: which of the following is false?
Q386.
One of the following is not a recognised complication of Streptococcus infection:
Q387.
Concerning Group A, beta‑haemolytic streptococcal skin infection, which is false?
Q388.
Concerning Streptococcus pyogenes, which is false?
Q389.
Streptococcus pneumoniae: which is false?
Q390.
The Streptococcus can be identified by the following except?
Q391.
Viridans Streptococcus: which is false?
Q392.
The following organisms cause serious infections in neonates and are acquired in the birth canal except?
Q393.
Correct statements about the classification of Streptococcus: which of the following is false?
Q394.
Complications of Streptococcus pyogenes throat infection may include the following except?
Q395.
Regarding glue ear, which is false?
Q396.
The following are true of acute glomerulonephritis (AGN) except?
Q397.
Characteristics of the streptococci include all of the following except?
Q398.
A CNS sample from a patient with acute meningitis showed many pus cells and Gram‑positive diplococci on Gram stain. Antimicrobial therapy can be started with which one?
Q399.
Hyaluronidase production is important in the pathogenesis of the following except?
Q400.
The most common bacterium causing serious lobar pneumonia following infection with influenza viruses is?
Q401.
About pneumococcal vaccine, which is false?
Q402.
Organisms that are important in causing infective endocarditis include the following except?
Q403.
Hyaluronidase production is important in the pathogenesis of all of the following except?
Q404.
Blood cultures taken from a patient with rapidly spreading cellulitis showed lysis of the blood and Gram‑positive cocci in long chains. Antimicrobial agents which are suitable for initial intravenous therapy include the following except?
Q405.
Effective antibiotic therapy for endocarditis caused by enterococci is?
Q406.
Which of the following is a characteristic of mycobacteria?
Q407.
Virulence in mycobacteria is most strongly correlated with?
Q408.
An acid‑fast smear on a patient\'s sputum is positive, the tuberculin test is negative, a more definitive diagnosis could be obtained by?
Q409.
The treatment of tuberculosis:
Q410.
Directly Observed Treatment Short Course, which is false?
Q411.
Concerning tuberculosis bacterium, which is false?
Q412.
In tuberculosis, which is false?
Q413.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis: The following are correct except?
Q414.
Microscopic technique for recognising acid‑fast bacilli is routinely known as:
Q415.
Mycobacterium are:
Q416.
With respect to pulmonary TB, which is false?
Q417.
About Mycobacterium tuberculosis, which is false?
Q418.
Which one of the following is a characteristic of Chlamydia?
Q419.
The following are true statements about Chlamydia trachomatis except?
Q420.
The following diseases are associated with Chlamydia trachomatis except?
Q421.
Non‑gonococcal urethritis can be caused by the following, except?
Q422.
Culturing of Chlamydia trachomatis requires the following?
Q423.
What is the infectious particle of Chlamydia called?
Q424.
Concerning enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli which is not correct?
Q425.
Concerning enteropathogenic Escherichia coli, which is false?
Q426.
The following are frequently implicated in an acute exacerbation of chronic bronchitis except?
Q427.
Concerning enterohaemorrhagic Escherichia coli, all are true except?
Q428.
Concerning Enterobacteriaceae, the following are true except
Q429.
About Salmonella organisms, which is false?
Q430.
Which of the following list of bacteria commonly infect the gastrointestinal tract except?
Q431.
The following are enteric rods except?
Q432.
About Shigella organism, which is false?
Q433.
Campylobacter spp, which is false?
Q434.
Diagnostic criteria for detection of typhoid carriers
Q435.
Which of the following pathogens can multiply within macrophages?
Q436.
About Vibrio parahaemolyticus, which is false?
Q437.
In Vibrio cholerae, which is false?
Q438.
Translation is a phase in
Q439.
A facultative anaerobic organism
Q440.
A mixed culture of Escherichia coli and Klebsiella pneumoniae can be differentiated by the following methods except?
Q441.
Shigella is transmitted by the following except?
Q442.
The following are Enterobacteriaceae except?
Q443.
Disease condition where blood culture is not useful is?
Q444.
About Enterobacteriaceae, which is correct?
Q445.
The disadvantage of penicillin therapy that is yet to be overcome is:
Q446.
Increased production of cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cyclic AMP) is responsible for the diarrhoea produced by:
Q447.
Among the Enterobacteriaceae, which of the following pair is motile?
Q448.
Vibrio cholerae has the characteristic property of:
Q449.
Salmonella typhi colonies appear colourless on all these media except?
Q450.
Characteristics of members of the family Enterobacteriaceae include all of the following except?
Q451.
Correct statements regarding Salmonella species are as follows except?
Q452.
The haemolytic uraemic syndrome: which is false?
Q453.
In Salmonella food poisoning: which is correct?
Q454.
A urine sample from a 24‑year‑old female yielded significant Gram‑negative motile bacilli, which produced hydrogen sulphide and gave a positive indole reaction test. Which of the following is true?
Q455.
The pathogenesis of which of the following organisms is most likely to involve invasion of the intestinal mucosa?
Q456.
Clostridium perfringens infections are commonly associated with?
Q457.
A patient presents with severe colitis associated with an overgrowth of Clostridium difficile in the lower bowel. The most likely cause of this condition is?
Q458.
The following are true about clostridial organisms except?
Q459.
About Vincent\'s organisms, the following are true except?
Q460.
In setting up parenteral infusions, which is false?
Q461.
A patient on an infusion develops fever, rigors and a fall in blood pressure. Which of this is false?
Q462.
Infections commonly associated with ICU patients include except?
Q463.
Type 2 leprae reaction, which is false?
Q464.
Causative agent in oral thrush is?
Q465.
Foetal infections contracted in utero can be due to the following, except?
Q466.
Types of flagellation include the following except?
Q467.
Analysis of cerebrospinal fluid from a case of suspected meningitis showed a great increase in protein and a reduced glucose concentration, which was 40% of the plasma concentration. Which of the following organisms is likely to be the cause?
Q468.
The following spirochaetes produce diseases in man except?
Q469.
In whooping cough, the following are true except?
Q470.
In diphtheria, which is false?
Q471.
In Corynebacterium diphtheriae, which is false?
Q472.
A distinguishing false feature of human Mycoplasma species is that they?
Q473.
Which of the following is most characteristic of Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection?
Q474.
Post‑partum fever due to Mycoplasma hominis is treated with the following drugs except?
Q475.
Neisseria gonorrhoeae, which is false?
Q476.
The following media can be used to isolate N. gonorrhoeae in the laboratory
Q477.
The following are true about Neisseria meningitidis except?
Q478.
Gram‑negative cocci growing on Thayer--Martin agar media could be:
Q479.
The following are useful in diagnosis of meningitis in the laboratory except?
Q480.
Which of the following specimens cannot be used in laboratory diagnosis of gonorrhoea in a female?
Q481.
A preterm baby girl is noted to have tachypnoea and cyanosis 12 hours after delivery. Preliminary laboratory report of a CSF sample indicated presence of Gram‑positive cocci. Which organism is most likely pathogen?
Q482.
The following facts about Neisseriae are correct except?
Q483.
For young adults presenting with acute meningitis, which is true?
Q484.
Neisseria meningitidis, which is true?
Q485.
Common causes of meningitis in the neonate include
Q486.
Bacterial causes of meningitis include the following except?
Q487.
Organisms involved in purulent meningitis include the following except?
Q488.
Concerning sexually transmitted infections, which is correct?
Q489.
Concerning STDs, which is false?
Q490.
The following are sexually transmitted except?
Q491.
The following infections are usually classified as genital ulcer disease, except?
Q492.
Concerning Prion\'s disease, the following are associated except?
Q493.
The following conditions are associated with genital ulcer disease except?
Q494.
Genital ulcer disease, which is false?
Q495.
The following are implicated in abnormal vaginal discharge except?
Q496.
The following organisms are associated typically with vaginitis
Q497.
Prions diseases are caused by the following except?
Q498.
Concerning \"prions\" causative agent of spongiform encephalopathy, which is false?
Haemophilus influenzae has been implicated in the aetiology of the following conditions except?
Q502.
Haemophilus influenzae is a coccobacillus, which is false?
Q503.
The following are principles of Biological Risks Management except?
Q504.
Parvobacteria: which is correct?
Q505.
Which of the following is not a dimorphic fungus?
Q506.
The parvobacteria include the following, except?
Q507.
Helicobacter, which is true?
Q508.
Anthrax, which is false?
Q509.
Bacillus anthracis, which is true?
Q510.
Anaerobes, which is true?
Q511.
About Actinomyces, which is false?
Q512.
Coxiella burnetii (Q fever), which is false?
Q513.
Rickettsiae, which is true?
Q514.
The following is true about Pseudomonas aeruginosa except?
Q515.
Bacteria commonly associated with the aetiology of septic shock is?
Q516.
Pertussis, which is false?
Q517.
Pasteurella, which is false?
Q518.
The following is tissue amoebae:
Q519.
On Spirochetes, which is false?
Q520.
Still on Spirochetes, which is false?
Q521.
About Treponema pallidum, which is true?
Q522.
Still on Treponema pallidum, which is true?
Q523.
Talking about Syphilis, which is false?
Q524.
On Borrelia burgdorferi, which is true?
Q525.
The following are true of Lyme disease except?
Q526.
Still on Lyme disease, which is false?
Q527.
Borrelia recurrentis, which is false?
Q528.
Leptospirosis, the following are true except?
Q529.
Which of the following is correct, concerning Helicobacter pylori?
Q530.
One of these is not found in Gram‑positive bacteria, except Listeria monocytogenes?
Q531.
Which of the following is incorrect about obligate anaerobes?
Q532.
A 28‑year‑old HIV‑positive man who had missed his appointment at the HIV clinic for one year, reported to the casualty and was found to have meningitis. On examination of his cerebrospinal fluid, acid‑fast bacilli were found. The likely organism responsible for the meningitis is?
Q533.
Which of the following organisms grow as non‑lactose‑fermenting organisms on MacConkey agar?
Q534.
Which is correct? A medical laboratory request is?
Q535.
The organism that is catalase, oxidase, urea‑breath test positive and implicated in peptic ulcer disease is likely to be?
Q536.
Which of the following is not correct concerning Staphylococcus aureus?
Q537.
In which of the following conditions does urine examination reveal the presence of pus cells but a negative culture result?
Q538.
About Taenia species, which is correct?
Q539.
About Diphyllobothrium latum which is true?
Q540.
Which of these is transmitted faeco‑orally?
Q541.
About trematodes, which is true?
Q542.
Enterobiasis, which is true?
Q543.
Concerning malaria, which is correct?
Q544.
Malaria, which is correct?
Q545.
Malaria parasite, which is false?
Q546.
The following in association with a positive severe parasitaemia constitute severe malaria: which is correct?
Q547.
About malaria, which is true?
Q548.
Still on malaria, which is false?
Q549.
Pneumocystis jirovecii, which is false?
Q550.
Arthropods of medical importance: which is true?
Q551.
Regarding lymphatic filariasis, which is false?
Q552.
Filarial worms: which is true?
Q553.
About the protozoa: which is false?
Q554.
The Anopheline mosquito transmitting malaria, which is true?
Q555.
The term definitive host is used when the host:
Q556.
Examples of zoonosis include all of the following except?
Q557.
The parasite related closely to Ancylostoma duodenale is:
Q558.
The following is the definitive host of malaria parasite:
Q559.
Protozoa of medical importance include except?
Q560.
The following are intestinal amoebae, except?
Q561.
About Toxoplasmosis: which is correct?
Q562.
About Echinococcus: which is true?
Q563.
About Echinococcus: which is false?
Q564.
About Tinea capitis: which is correct?
Q565.
Concerning Schistosomiasis: which is true?
Q566.
About trypanosomiasis: which is false?
Q567.
General characteristics of cestodes include the following except?
Q568.
Hepatitis C virus: which is false?
Q569.
Antiretroviral drugs include the following?
Q570.
Viruses can be cultivated in the following media except?
Q571.
Concerning PCR: which is false?
Q572.
Which of the following serum components is an indicator of post infection and subsequent immunity to hepatitis B virus infection?
Q573.
Which of the following is an RNA Virus?
Q574.
Which of the following is an enveloped DNA virus?
Q575.
From an epidemiological point of view, Hepatitis A infection is associated with which?
Q576.
Orchitis is a possible complication of which?
Q577.
The most frequent clinical manifestation of an initial infection of (HSV1) is?
Q578.
The window period for HIV is?
Q579.
Pre-malignant cells are seen in a pap-smear from a 40 years old woman. Which agent is most likely to be present in these cells?
Q580.
HIV infection is suspected in a 28 year old man with complaints of intermittent fever and chills. He is suffering from pneumonia and oral thrush. Detection of which enzyme would be diagnostic of this infection?
Q581.
The following is true of viruses except?
Q582.
In the recent avian flu epidemic: which is false?
Q583.
Presently, the most effective form of prevention against viral infection available is?
Q584.
The following is true of the universal precaution against blood borne pathogens?
Q585.
Negri bodies are minute intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies found in nerve cells infected with?
Q586.
The following have oncogenic properties in humans except?
Q587.
Serologic profile of recovery from hepatitis B infection with immunity includes the detection of all of the following except?
Q588.
Specific diagnosis of HIV infection can be made by the following except?
Q589.
The following are true for Influenza virus except?
Q590.
Latency is an outcome characteristic of
Q591.
A DNA virus causes which of the following diseases?
Q592.
Acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) is a disease that occurs in previously healthy individual and is characterized by immunologic abnormalities, multiple opportunistic infections and unusual forms of certain malignant neoplasms. Microorganisms that commonly cause infections in patients with AIDS include:
Q593.
Measles: which is correct?
Q594.
In Rubeola and Rubella, it is correct to state that:
Q595.
The commonest virus responsible for outbreaks of acute gastroenteritis of infants is?
Q596.
In poliomyelitis: which is false?
Q597.
A young man presented with a disease that caused him to lose weight, skin rashes and diarrhea occurred and he became susceptible to tuberculosis. With time he suffered an additional attack on the spinal cord and brain causing motor dysfunction and dementia. The virus was found to be a single-stranded RNA retrovirus. He probably had an infection by?
Q598.
Which of the following virus does not belong to the herpesviridae family?
Q599.
A 56 year old man complaints of severe pain caused by a belt of vesicular lesions across the left side of the abdomen. What could be said of the infection?
Q600.
Pre-malignant cells are seen in a pap smear from a 40 year old woman. Which agents are likely to be highly associated with this condition?
Q601.
This shows 5 serologic profiles of individuals screened for hepatitis B. With which profile would be an acceptable candidate for donating blood? Profile A: Anti-HBc +, Anti-HBe -, Anti-HBs -, HBsAg + Profile B: Anti-HBc -, Anti-HBe -, Anti-HBs +, HBsAg - Profile C: Anti-HBc +, Anti-HBe +, Anti-HBs -, HBsAg + Profile D: Anti-HBc -, Anti-HBe -, Anti-HBs -, HBsAg + Profile E: Anti-HBc -, Anti-HBe -, Anti-HBs +, HBsAg +
Q602.
For the past 3 months, a 28 year old man has experienced weight loss, intermittent fever and chills. He recently developed pneumonia and thrush. The combination of clinical manifestations indicates infection with which virus?
Q603.
The following is true of the avian influenza virus except?
Q604.
A medical student on a paediatric rotation is concerned about contagion from his patient. His medical records show that he received routine childhood immunization and that he had chickenpox when he was 5 years old. Which virus poses a high risk for nosocomial infection?
Q605.
The following are RNA viruses except?
Q606.
Primary difference between Salk and Sabin polio virus is?
Q607.
Acceptable confirmation tests for HIV infection in Nigeria include the following except?
Q608.
Antigenic drift refers to?
Q609.
The ELISA test is commonly used to detect?
Q610.
Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV): which is true?
Q611.
In a chronic carrier of Hepatitis B virus, which positive test is most indicative of high infectivity?
Q612.
Viruses: which is true?
Q613.
The following are DNA viruses except?
Q614.
The following are RNA viruses except?
Q615.
The following statements are true of Varicella zoster virus except?
Q616.
Epstein-Barr virus is associated with the following except?
Q617.
HHV6 is associated with which of the following?
Q618.
Which of the following is false concerning Influenza A virus?
Q619.
HIV/AIDS may respond to the following immunity:
Q620.
Which of the following viruses has a single stranded nucleic acid?
Q621.
The following are DNA viruses except?
Q622.
The following are steps in viral replication except?
Q623.
Concerning influenza viruses, which is true?
Q624.
All of the following are correctly matched except?
Q625.
Concerning Herpes simplex virus, which is not a clinical form?
Q626.
The following are known causes of viral haemorrhagic fever except?
Q627.
The following are correctly matched options except?
Q628.
Antiviral agents include the following except?
Q629.
Concerning the beta variants of human herpes virus which is true?
Q630.
The oncogenic virus Epstein-Barr Virus may be associated with all of the following except?
Q631.
The following have been known about Varicella Zoster Virus:
Q632.
Immunotolerant phase of Hepatitis B include the following except?
Q633.
Measles has the following features correct:
Q634.
The following about Rabies are true except?
Q635.
In Viral Haemorrhagic Fever, the following may be correctly matched:
Q636.
Infectious mononucleosis: which is false?
Q637.
A ten-year old boy was brought to hospital on account of a two-day history of fever, anorexia and generalized body pains. On examination, he was ill-looking, with mild icterus of the sclera. Blood sample collected for pathology investigations revealed he was HBsAg positive but HBeAg negative. Trophozoites of Plasmodium falciparum were seen on the slides of the stained blood film. Which of the following statements below could not be true of this patient?
Q638.
Keratoconjunctivitis may be due to infection with:
Q639.
In a suspected case of poliomyelitis, the most important specimen to be taken for the isolation of the virus is:
Q640.
The following viruses can cause meningitis except?
Q641.
The early genes of DNA viruses code primarily for proteins whose functions are required for?
Q642.
An abortive infection is one in which:
Q643.
Which one of the following clinical entities is NOT associated with adenovirus infections?
Q644.
The characteristic rash of erythema infectiosum is due to?
Q645.
The following viral haemorrhagic fever virus may result in a severe shock syndrome when subsequent infection with a different serotype occurs:
Q646.
Lassa fever virus is an important cause of viral haemorrhagic fever in Nigeria. What family does it belong?
Q647.
The following are RNA viruses except?
Q648.
The following are characteristics of Herpes viruses except?
Q649.
Aedes species of mosquitoes serve as vectors for the following?
Q650.
Mosquitoes are very important disease vectors. Which of the following is not a mosquito-borne disease?
Q651.
Concerning Actinomycosis: which is false?
Q652.
Concerning the Dermatophytes, which is true?
Q653.
The following specimens are used in clinical mycological investigations except?
Q654.
Dimorphic fungi include the following except?
Q655.
The following organisms are acid fast except?
Q656.
Which of the following possesses capsule?
Q657.
Concerning the treatment of mycotic infection: which is false?
Q658.
Opportunistic fungal infection includes which of the following?
Q659.
The following is a characteristic of a fungus:
Q660.
Antigenic detection in mycotic infections is used in the following diseases except?
Q661.
During mycological test: which is false?
Q662.
Madura foot can be caused by all of the following except?
Q663.
All of the following fungi can cause subcutaneous mycosis except?
Q664.
Which of the following is a dermatophyte?
Q665.
The following are cutaneous mycotic infections except?
Q666.
The following are anti-mycotic agents except?
Q667.
Concerning the Dermatophytes: which is correct?
Q668.
The following are important mycotic organisms in HIV/AIDS patients except?
Q669.
Which of the following is a yeast?
Q670.
Syndrome associated with Cryptococcal infection includes the following except?
Q671.
Concerning filamentous bacteria: which is false?
Q672.
Which of the following is an acid fast organism?
Q673.
Mycotic infection of opportunistic significance include the following except?
Q674.
The following are true of fungal serology antibodies except?
Q675.
Mycotic diseases take the following pattern except?
Q676.
The following are subcutaneous infective agents (mycosis) except?
Q677.
Cutaneous mycosis infective agents are as follows except?
Q678.
Concerning fungi: which is true?
Q679.
The following are dermatophytosis except?
Q680.
In Chromomycosis, the following is correct except?
Q681.
About Aspergillus infections: which is false?
Q682.
A farmer in Mississippi presents with a chronic cough. Chest X-Ray reveals an opaque mass. Biopsy of the lung shows macrophages with multiple yeast forms. Which one of the following diagnoses is most likely?
Q683.
The following organisms form yeast cells in infected tissues except?
Q684.
Subcutaneous mycosis is associated with all of the following organisms except?
Q685.
Candida albicans: which is false?
Q686.
Aspergillus species: which is correct?
Q687.
An infectious fungus most likely seen in a neutropenic patient include:
Q688.
Most fungi of medical significance will be visible on mycological media within expected time except?
Q689.
About Medical Mycology: which is false?
Q690.
Still on Medical Mycology: which is correct?
Q691.
The Zygomycota: which is correct?
Q692.
Basidiomycota: which is correct?
Q693.
Mould morphology: which is true?
Q694.
Dimorphic fungi: which is false?
Q695.
Characteristics of mycotic infections: which is false?
Q696.
About mycotic infections: which is false?
Q697.
Central immunological tolerance is primarily established in:
Q698.
MHC Class II molecules are primarily found on:
Q699.
Which viral family contains a segmented RNA genome?
Q700.
Tinea capitis is most commonly caused by species of:
Q701.
The primary mechanism of antigenic shift in Influenza A virus is:
Q702.
Type I hypersensitivity reactions are mediated by:
Q703.
Hepatitis D virus (HDV) is a defective virus that requires co-infection with:
Q704.
Which fungus is a common cause of invasive disease in immunocompromised patients, particularly those with neutropenia?
Q705.
The classical complement pathway is initiated by:
Q706.
The viral capsid is composed of:
Q707.
The \'Wood\'s lamp\' examination is useful in the diagnosis of:
Q708.
Which immunoglobulin is found in highest concentration in the serum?
Q709.
The diagnosis of Rabies in an animal can be confirmed by detecting:
Q710.
Histoplasmosis is typically acquired via:
Q711.
An attenuated vaccine contains:
Q712.
Which virus family includes the causative agent of Smallpox?
Q713.
Which antifungal drug acts by inhibiting 1,3-beta-glucan synthase?
Q714.
Interferons are primarily:
Q715.
Human T-cell leukemia virus (HTLV-1) is associated with:
Q716.
Fungi differ from bacteria in that they:
Q717.
The bacterial growth phase characterized by the most rapid cell division and constant metabolic activity is the:
Q718.
Which process effectively kills all forms of microbial life, including spores?
Q719.
Bacterial conjugation requires which of the following structures?
Q720.
The toxic component of lipopolysaccharide (LPS) in Gram-negative bacteria is:
Q721.
The primary purpose of the decolorization step (alcohol/acetone) in the Gram stain is to:
Q722.
Which of the following is an obligate anaerobe?
Q723.
The Ziel-Neelsen (acid-fast) stain targets which component of the bacterial cell wall?
Q724.
Bacterial exotoxins are typically:
Q725.
What is the primary function of the bacterial capsule?
Q726.
Which of the following genera are known to produce endospores?
Q727.
The transfer of bacterial DNA via a bacteriophage is known as:
Q728.
Plasmids are best described as:
Q729.
Lysozyme acts by attacking which component of the bacterial cell wall?
Q730.
Bacterial ribosomes are composed of:
Q731.
MacConkey agar is a selective medium primarily used to isolate:
Q732.
What is the main function of fimbriae (pili) in bacteria?
Q733.
Which structure is responsible for bacterial motility?
Q734.
A bacterium that grows best at moderate temperatures (e.g., 20--45°C) is called a:
Q735.
The Minimum Inhibitory Concentration (MIC) is defined as:
Q736.
Bacterial siderophores are molecules specifically designed to: