Cardiovascular, Renal, Gastrointestinal, Respiratory and Haemopoietic Pharmacology
Study Mode • 298 Questions
Q1.
Non selective B adrenergic blockers have the following disadvantages EXCEPT
Q2.
Which of these is not true about Beta-2 stimulation?
Q3.
B-adrenergic receptor antagonists may lower blood pressure by other mechanism except
Q4.
B2 agonists and methylxanthines
Q5.
B2 agonists, UNTRUE statement
Q6.
These lipoprotein particles transport fat from digestive tract to the liver
Q7.
The following statements concerning the diuretic acetazolamide are correct except
Q8.
The following are the characteristics of Osmotic diuretics except
Q9.
Mannitol can be used in the management of the following conditions except
Q10.
Loop diuretics produce the following actions except
Q11.
Adverse effects associated with loop diuretics include all except
Q12.
The second generation antihistamines are newer, more novel agents. Which is false concerning their pharmacology? ·
Q13.
Massive histamine release can be precipitated by all following except
Q14.
Warfarin, which is false
Q15.
Coumarin derivatives
Q16.
Unlike WARFARIN, Heparin
Q17.
Which of the following is not an adverse effect of Heparin
Q18.
Proton pump inhibitors
Q19.
Anti-ulcer agents
Q20.
There is no compelling reason to favour one ACE Inhibitor over another because
Q21.
ACE inhibitors in left ventricular systolic dysfunction
Q22.
Angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBS) inhibit all of the following angiotensin induced and other effects except.. [al contraction of vascular smooth muscle
Q23.
The mechanism of action of Nitroso compounds as antiangina agents involves all of the following except
Q24.
High doses of nitro the following effects except
Q25.
Ca2+ channel antagonists
Q26.
Ca2+ channel antagonists
Q27.
Ca2+ channel blockers
Q28.
Select the most correct statement
Q29.
Aldosterone antagonists
Q30.
Which of the following is a statement true Clofibrate?
Q31.
Arrhythmias could be due to all the following EXCEPT?
Q32.
All of the following are moderate phase O depression antiarrhythmic agents EXCEPT
Q33.
Organic nitrates, FALSE statement
Q34.
Concerning Minoxidil which of the following statement is WRONG?
Q35.
Which is FALSE concerning antihyperlipidaemic agents?
Q36.
H2 blockers attenuate the gastric acid secretory response by one of the following mechanisms
Q37.
Major difference between the mechanism of action of PPIs and H2 receptor antagonists (HRA)
Q38.
Which Statement concering methylxanthines and the treatment of asthma is FALSE?
Q39.
Methylxanthines, WRONG statement
Q40.
Steroids, INCORRECT statement
Q41.
Bronchial asthma, INCORRECT statement
Q42.
Which is FALSE concerning bile acid vessels binding resins?
Q43.
Which is INCORRECT concerning ACEIS carefully avoided
Which is FALSE concerning agents used in the management of peptic ulcer?
Q56.
Which of this is NOT TRUE of statins?
Q57.
FALSE statement concerning digitalis
Q58.
Concerning Digoxin, all of the following statements are true EXCEPT
Q59.
Which of these agents are more likely to affect the cytochrome P450 drug metabolizing system?
Q60.
INCORRECT statement concerning the mechanism of action of digitalis
Q61.
INCORRECT statement concerning the mechanism of action of digitalis
Q62.
Pathophysiology of heart failure, WRONG statement
Q63.
Which is false concerning unfractionated heparin and low molecular weight heparin
Q64.
Concerning Direct inhibitors of factor 10a, which is CORRECT
Q65.
Gastric acid secretion is influenced by the following agents?
Q66.
Which of the following is FALSE?
Q67.
H2 blockers attenuate the gastric acid secretory response by one of the following mechanisms?
Q68.
Concerning Direct inhibitors of factor 10a, which is INCORRECT
Q69.
WRONG statement concerning treatment
Q70.
Antihypertensive with hem of he schin as while effect online
Q71.
Antihypertensive used topically to treat Alopecia include A Hydralazine
Q72.
Antihypertensive ociated with First Dec phenomenon
Q73.
Concerning the pharmacologic actions of glucocorticoids which statements is UNTRUE
Q74.
The mechanism of the anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive actions of glucocorticoids include all the following EXCEPT
Q75.
Possible side effects of glucocorticoids include the following EXCEPT
Q76.
Which of the following statements concerning therapy with glucocorticoids is TRUE?
Q77.
Which one of the following medication major side effect combination is NOT correct? A Toluclin-High blood pressure
Q78.
Which of the following statements about celecoxib is true?
Q79.
The main clinical uses of NSAIDS include the following except
Q80.
Which one of the following medications is best for treating patients with myocardial infarction?
Q81.
The rational for the use of NSAIDs in primary dysmenorrhea is A Dysmenorrhea is an inflammatory process
Q82.
The False statement NSAID)
Q83.
Classification of Antiarrhythmic Drugs, False statement
Q84.
Angiotensin II causes rise in blood pressure by the following except
Q85.
The following factors enhance Renin release from the Kidney except
Q86.
Potentiation of bradykinin appears to play a role in the following effects of Angiotensin Converting Enzyme Inhibitors except
Q87.
Which of the following antihypertensive is indicated in a hypotensive with BPH7
Q88.
Within the cardiac myocyte, Tropinin
Q89.
Concerning calcium channel antagonist
Q90.
Pathophysiology of heart failure includes
Q91.
Agents that affect cardine renmiddelling
Q92.
In normal cardiac cells, the NA+K+ ATPase exchanges
Q93.
Suitable for the treatment of digitalis induced arrhythmias
Q94.
Which of the underlisted drugs will not enhance the release of vasopressin
Q95.
The antidiuretic action of vasopressin can be enhanced by all the following except
Q96.
An agent that does not promote persistent reflex
Q97.
Inclusion of ineclofenuate to the medication of a patient on warfarin resulted in pronounced hemorrhage. This may have resulted from
Q98.
Eicosanoids can be derived from the following except
Q99.
Which of the drugs below is useful in peptic ulcer and in the induction of labour?
Q100.
The antipyretic effects of NSAIDs can be stimulated to these
Q101.
Nephrotoxicity is a major adverse effect of which of the following immunosuppressive agents
Q102.
Which of the following immunosuppressive agents is LEAST likely to suppress bone marrow functions A Castionecr
Q103.
All of the following agents are useful in treating autoimmune disease Disease EXCEPT A Azathioprine
Q104.
Which of the following will not combine to the inflammatory response?
Q105.
Which of the underlisted drugs induced immunosuppression by interfering with nucleic acid metabolism of phil cells?
Q106.
The primary cells that are involved in the first line of defense by the body against antigenic challenge are A Neutrophils
Q107.
Digitalis must be used with caution in patients with acute myocardial infarction. Which of the following is true of digitalis use?
Q108.
Which of the following is NOT an indication for ẞ blocker therapy?
Q109.
A group of college students is planning a mountain climbing trip. Which of the following drugs would be appropriate for them to take to prevent mountain sickness
Q110.
The main principles underlying multidrug therapy of hypertension (EXCEPTION)
Q111.
The LEAST rational combination of agents for treatment of hypertension resistant to monotherapy with \"firstline\" drugs
Q112.
Antihypertensive agent must be used with caution. Choose the medical condition for which methyldopa is most contraindicated from the list below
Q113.
Which of the following drugs is usually employed in familial hypercholesterolemia?
Q114.
Which of these is not true of HDL?
Q115.
Lipid lowering drug useful in the management of pruritus due to biliary obstruction?
Q116.
Which of the following is not a class 1 anti-arrhythmic agent
Q117.
The best drug to use in long term control of chronic asthma would be
Q118.
Nitrates, CORRECT statement
Q119.
Class of gastrointestinal drugs that decreases intragastric acidiy whilst contributing eradication of H. pylori
Q120.
Antiemetic that could precipitate extra pyramidal symptoms
Q121.
Mechanism of action of antimicrobial activity against H. pylori cytoprotection binds to the ulcer base
Q122.
Which of the following is not an action of corticosteroids?
Q123.
Drug better suited for the management of cytokine induced asthma
Q124.
Which of these drugs is not an anti-inflammatory?
Q125.
Which of these statement is not true about ẞ-2 stimulation?
Q126.
Preferred pre-exercise class of drug for an asthmatic
Q127.
Anti-arrhythmic agents, INCORRECT statement
Q128.
B-blocker FALSE statement
Q129.
A 74yrs man on warfarin was doing well until proxicam was included in his medication to control his toothache. Patient suddenly started bleeding and developed pedal oedema. What may be responsible for the bleeding?
Q130.
Which of the following is not an adverse effect of Heparin?
Q131.
Heparin, INCORRECT statement
Q132.
Unlike warfarin, Heparin
Q133.
Unlike heparin, warfarin
Q134.
Mechanism of warfarin action INCORRECT statement
Q135.
Warfarin INCORRECT statement
Q136.
Which of the following lipid lowering drugs can be used in the treatment of pruritus caused by biliary obstruction
Q137.
Warfarin, INCORRECT statement
Q138.
Warfarin, INCORRECT statement
Q139.
Warfarin, INCORRECT statement
Q140.
Diuretics CORRECT statement
Q141.
Inhibitors of Na+/Cl-symport include all EXCEPT
Q142.
Which of the general statement is TRUE
Q143.
Propranolol may cause all of the following EXCEPT
Q144.
Anti-Anythmic agents, INCORRECT statement
Q145.
The principal action of organic n treatment of congestive heart failure
Q146.
B-blockers, FALSE statement
Q147.
A 74 year old man or warfarin was doing well until piroxicam was included in his medication to control his toothache. Salient suddenly started bleeding and developed pedal edema. What may be responsible for the bleeding?
Q148.
Heparin, INCORRECT statement
Q149.
Which of these antiemetics act via central dopaminergic blockade symptoms extra
Q150.
Which of these is not a mucosal drug?
Q151.
Antacid: effective, but associated with osmotic diarrhea
Q152.
Side effect profile - antiulcer medication depression, bradycardia, gynecomastia, Muscle pain and constipation
Q153.
Anti-emetic that could precipitate extra pyramidal symptoms
Q154.
Mechanism of action antimicrobial activity against H. pylori cytoprotection, binds to the ulcer base
Q155.
An agent that does not promote peristatic reflex
Q156.
All of the following decrease gastric motility except
Q157.
The following are cardiac depressants useful in angina Except
Q158.
Alvimopam is indicated in which condition
Q159.
The dihydropyridine block the following types of calcium channels
Q160.
In acute attack of angina, the following agent is given sublingually
Q161.
Concerning Mechanism of ACEIs, which is Incorrect
Q162.
Hyperuricemia is a common example with which class of Diuretics
Q163.
Which of these agents are most likely to affect the cytochrome P450 drug metabolizing system?
Q164.
Which of these antiemetics act via central dopaminergic blockade
Q165.
Which of these is not a mucosal protective drug?
Q166.
Methylxanthines are all of the following except
Q167.
Drugs better suited for the management of aspirin induced Asthma
Q168.
Mechanism of action of WARFARIN. INCORRECT STATEMENT
Q169.
Incorrect about WARFARIN
Q170.
Unlike heparin, WARFARIN
Q171.
Side effect of Heparin include all EXCEPT
Q172.
Concerning WARFARIN, which of the following is FALSE
Q173.
A 78yr old man on WARFARIN took Piroxicam for toothache, later He began to experience hemorrhage. Which of the following explains this?
Q174.
Which of the following is used in Familial hypercholesterolemia
Q175.
Which of the following is used to treat long standing Asthma
Q176.
Select the most correct statement
Q177.
Side effect profile. Anti ulcer medication, muscle pain, constipation, depression & bradycardia
Q178.
Anti-emetic with extra pyramidal effect
Q179.
Which is not true about HDL
Q180.
Which of the following inhibits cholesterol uptake from enterocytes
Q181.
What causes osmotic diarrhea
Q182.
Drugs useful in aspirin induced asthma
Q183.
Concerning methylxanthines which is FALSE
Q184.
Which of these will decrease the plasma VLDL & LDL
Q185.
The lipoprotein that transports cholesterol from Digestive tract to the liver
Q186.
Cutaneous flushing is caused by;
Q187.
An anti ulcer that inhibits CYP 450
Q188.
Drugs with cryoprotectant properties include the following EXCEPT
Q189.
Which of the following is incorrect concerning WARFARIN therapy
Q190.
Which lipoprotein causes reverse cholesterol transport
Q191.
Drugs used to before exercise to prevent asthmatic attack
Q192.
Which anti emetic has dopamine receptor blocking properties
Q193.
Which of the following is not a class 1C anti-arrhythmic
Q194.
Which of the following CCBs has the clearest effect
Q195.
Drug that decreases H. pylori and acid production
Q196.
Example of antidiarrhoea drugs include all EXCEPT
Q197.
Which diuretic causes erectile dysfunction
Q198.
Which of these inhibits reflex peristalsis
Q199.
Concerning diuretics
Q200.
Diuretics, correct statement
Q201.
Cryoprotectant which decreases intragastric activity and has antimicrobial action
Q202.
Alpha methyldopa has been used successfully in the control of hypertension. Side effects include all of the following, EXCEPT
Q203.
Propranolol produces most of its important effects by antagonizing the beta adrenergic effects of catecholamines released by sympathetic nerve stimulation or from the adrenal medulla. It therefore results in all of the following EXCEPT
Q204.
It is important to understand the side effects of the various antihypertensive agents. Drugs such as guanethidine that block the function of postganglionic adrenergic neurons may produce all of the following EXCEPT
Q205.
Propranolol is contraindicated in all of the following EXCEPT
Q206.
Which of the following pairings is incorrect
Q207.
Incorrect statement about Atropine
Q208.
Incorrect statement about Propanolol
Q209.
Antiarrhythmic drugs can be separated into four groups, types I to IV. All of the following are type I antiarrhythmic drugs EXCEPT
Q210.
Quinidine toxicity includes all of the following EXCEPT
Q211.
The effect of different antiarrhythmic agents is best understood by knowing their predominant actions on cardiac fibers. All of the following general statements are true EXCEPT
Q212.
In the pharmacologic treatment of cardiovascular disorders, quinidine has all of the following effects EXCEPT
Q213.
Which of the following medications is contraindicated in a patient with untreated complete heart block?
Q214.
TRUE statements concerning Vaughan-Williams\'s Class III antiarrhythmic drugs include all EXCEPT
Q215.
A class IB antiarrhythmic, characterized by rapid association - dissociation from sodium channels Questions 17 - 20 Choose the correct answer for the following questions from the list below. Each answer can be used once, more than once, or not at all
Q216.
Incorrect statement about Heparin
Q217.
Incorrect statement about Warfarin
Q218.
Which of the following substances has its major activity as a saline cathartic?
Q219.
The correct statement regarding sucralfate
Q220.
Correct statement regarding metoclopramide
Q221.
To induce daily bowel movements in normal healthy individuals
Q222.
Which of the following substances is most likely to cause systemic alkalosis?
Q223.
Saline cathartics, such as sodium sulfate or magnesium sulfate
Q224.
Adverse effect(s) of laxatives
Q225.
In esophagitis, elevation of the head of the bed, abstinence from ethanol and tobacco, and small frequent meals are all useful adjunctive therapeutic measures. Other useful therapy may include all of the following EXCEPT
Q226.
Drug which exerts anti-peptic ulcer effects through histamine-2 receptor antagonism
Q227.
Cimetidine reduces the clearance of all of the following EXCEPT
Q228.
Which of the following substances has its major activity as an stimulant cathartic?
Q229.
Which of the following is NOT an indication for B-blocker therapy
Q230.
A group of college students are planning a mountain climbing trip. Which of the following drugs would be appropriate for them to take to prevent mountain sickness?
Q231.
Hypertension is a disorder that must be treated with care. Which of the following indication (contraindication) is associated with methyldopa in the treatment of hypertension
Q232.
Hypertension is a disorder that must be treated with care. Which of the following indication (contraindication) is associated with hydralazine in the treatment of hypertension
Q233.
Anti-hypertensives must be used with caution, choose the medical condition for which reserpine is most contraindicated
Q234.
Formed from sequential enzymatic cleavage by rennin and then peptidyl dipeptidase (kinase II)
Q235.
Lower blood pressure in hypertensive patients by inhibition of peptidyl dipeptidase
Q236.
The LEAST rational combination of agents for treatment of hypertension resistant to monotherapy with \"first-line\" drugs
Q237.
Coadministration of statins with all of these class of drugs except one is associated with the increased risk of rhabdomyolysis
Q238.
Which of these drugs is usually employed in familial hypercholesterolemia
Q239.
Which of these is not true of HDL
Q240.
Lipid lowering drugs useful in the management of pruritus due to biliary obstruction
Q241.
Antihyperlipidemic agents that reduces VLDL and consequently, IDL and LDL lipoprotein plasma levels
Q242.
Drug of choice for paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia unresponsive to vagal maneuvers
Q243.
Produces transient increase in blood pressure followed by hypotension due to initial release of norepinephrine from neurons followed by blockade of norepinephrine re- uptake
Q244.
Contains iodine in molecular structure, is similar to thyroxine, and use is associated with hyper- or hypothyroidism in 2%-5% of patients
Q245.
Pharmacokinetic properties characterized by very high protein- binding (99.9%), very large volume of distribution (66L/kg), and average elimination half-life of 25 days
Q246.
A class IC antiarrhythmic, characterized by high affinity for and slow dissociation from fast sodium channels
Q247.
A class IB antiarrhythmic, characterized by rapid association- dissociation from sodium channels
Q248.
A positive Coomb\'s test and haemolytic anaemia may follow the administration of which antihypertensive drug?
Q249.
In a hypertensive patient who is taking insulin to treat diabetes, which of the following drugs is to be used with extra caution and advice to the patient
Q250.
Drugs that block the catecholamine uptake process (eg: cocaine, TCADs and phenothiazine) are able to block the antihypertensive action of which of the following drugs
Q251.
ACEls are associated with high incidence of which of the following adverse reactions
Q252.
Significant relaxation of smooth of both venules and arterioles is produced by which of the following drugs
Q253.
Which of the following drugs is NOT used in preterm labor
Q254.
Which of the following drugs inhibit effect of sympathetic nerve stimulation on blood vessels
Q255.
Converted to a \"false transmitter\" in noradrenergic nerve terminals, works mostly in the CNS
Q256.
Inhibition of calcium in vascular smooth muscle
Q257.
Match the receptor types with their effects Increased cardiac chronotropy (rate) and inotropy (contractility), increased AV node conduction velocity and increase in rennin juxtaglomerular cells
Q258.
Match the receptor types with their effects: Relaxes smooth muscle and causes liver glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis
Q259.
Match the following receptor subtypes with their effects: Vascular smooth muscle contraction and genitourinary system muscle contraction
Q260.
Match the following receptor subtypes with their effects: Decreases insulin secretion from B-cells, decreases nerve cell norepinephrine release and contracts vascular smooth muscle
Q261.
Gastric acid secretion is controlled by the following EXCEPT
Q262.
Which of the following may cause reversible gynaecomastia
Q263.
Pick an emetic drug of central action
Q264.
Select the emetic drug with reflex action
Q265.
Which is the mechanism of action of (stimulant) purgative
Q266.
Drugs that reduce Cholesterol uptake from enterocytes
Q267.
Drugs that cause skin flushing as side effect
Q268.
Which of the lipoprotein aids the reverse transport of cholesterol
Q269.
Which of the following is a first line drug of choice in severe hypertriglyceridemia in a patient at risk of pancreatitis
Q270.
Diuretics, correct statement
Q271.
Inhibitors of Na-Cl symporters are: The question is meant to be expect
Q272.
Characteristics of osmostic diuretics
Q273.
Which is the true statement
Q274.
Which of the following anti-emetic act via central dopaminergic blockade
Q275.
Agents that does not promote peristaltic reflex
Q276.
Which of the following antiarrhythmics may worsen angina symptoms by increasing myocardial oxygen requirements?
Q277.
Cinchonism is a dose-related adverse reaction associated with which of the following antiarrhythmics?
Q278.
Which of the following are classified as IB antiarrhythmics?
Q279.
In treating supraventricular arrhythmias, which of the following reduces ventricular response primarily by increasing the effective refractory period of the A-V node?
Q280.
Class IC antiarrhythmics possess which of the following electrophysiologic properties?
Q281.
Which of the following is not an action of corticosteroids?
Q282.
Regarding hyperlipidemia, which of the following can worsen lipid profile intravenously
Q283.
Urinary incontinence and retrograde ejaculation are side effects of which class of antihypertensive
Q284.
Main principles underlying multidrug therapy of hypertension (EXCEPTION)
Q285.
The LEAST rational combination of agents for treatment of hypotension resistant to monotherapy with first-line drugs. have an unacceptably
Q286.
Antihypertensive agents must be used with caution. Choose the medical condition for which Methyldopa is most
Q287.
Which of these drugs is usually employed in familial hypercholesterolemia? Colestipol
Q288.
Which of these is not true of HDL?
Q289.
Anti-hyperlipidemic agent that reduces VLDL and consequently, IDL and LDL lipoprotein plasma levels
Q290.
Class of gastrointestinal drugs that decreases intragastric acidity whilst contributing to the eradication of H. pylori
Q291.
Side effect protic antolcer medication depression, bradycardia, gynecomastia, Muscle pain and constipation
Q292.
All of the following decrease gastric motility except A Loperamide
Q293.
Drugs belter suited for the management of aspirin induced Asthma
Q294.
A 74 yr old man or warfarin was doing well until piroxicam was included in his medication to control his toothache. Palient suddenly started bleeding and developed pedal oedema. What may be responsible for the bleeding?