Q1. Which of the following group of drugs do not affect formed cellular structures?
a. Nitrofurantoin b. Polyene antibiotics c. Benzimidazoles d. Vinca alkaloids e. Polymixins
Q2. Aminoglycosides, WRONG statement
a. ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity are irreversible b. blunts the neuromuscular blockade of neuromuscular blockers c. elimination is independent of creatinine clearance d. have large Vo when administered intravenously e. all of the above
Q3. Which of the following rapidly acting blood schizonticides has pharmacologic effects not related to degree of parasitaemia?
a. Amodiaquine b. Quinine c. Halofantrine d. Atremisinin e. none of the above
Q4. WHAT IS FALSE concerning mechanism of resistance to Amphotericin B?
a. reduced ergosterol content (defective ERG2 or ERG3 genes) b. alterations in sterol content (fecosterol, episterol: reduced affinity) c. alterations in sterol to phospholipid ratio d. reorientation or masking of Ergosterol e. none of the above
Q5. One of these is NOT true of Terbinafine
a. Its administration causes accumulation of the sterol squalene, which is toxic to the fungal organism b. It is an allylamine c. It is mainly a keratophilic medication d. Its parenteral use is not recommended e. none of the above
Q6. Which of the following drugs matches with their mechanism of action
a. Mebendazole increases permeability of worms to Ca2+ b. Praziquantel blocks glucose uptake and utilisation c. Diethyl carbamazine inhibit anaerobic production of ATP d. Niclosamide sensitize microfilaria to phagocytosis e. none of the above
Q7. Praziquantel, WRONG statement
a. mechanism of action is to \"disrupt the tegument of the worm leading to unmasking of antigens which identifiable by the host immunity\" b. drug of choice for schistosomiasis c. considered safe in pregnancy d. Mechanism of action is increased e. none of the above.
Q8. Amphotericin B, INCORRECT statement
a. They causes impairment of the normal cavity of fungal cell membrane b. It causes shock-like fall in blood pressure may occur during IV infusion c. There causes dose-dependent renal toxicity d. all of the above e. None of the above
Q9. Which of the following statements correctly pairs the antifungal drug with its likely mechanism of action?
a. Amphotericin B - Inhibits synthetase b. Terbinafine - inhibits squalene epoxidase c. Flucytosine - inhibits fungal mycolic acid synthesis d. Miconazole - Inhibits DNA dependent RNA polymerase e. Nystatin - inhibits ergosterol synthesis
Q10. Azoles, WRONG statement
a. mechanism of antifungal action of azoles is by inhibition of the conversion of lanosterol to ergosterol b. Mucormycosis disease is resistant to azole treatment c. Fluconazole crosses the blood brain barrier d. ketoconazole is the most toxic congener in this group e. none of the above
Q11. Which is INCORRECT Concerning mechanism of resistance of Amphotericin B
a. Reduced ergosterol content (defective ERG2 or ERG3genes) b. Alterations in sterol content (fecosterol, episterol: reduced affinity) c. Alterations in sterol to phospholipid ratio d. Reorientation or masking of Ergosterol e. All of the above
Q12. Azoles, CORRECT statement
a. imidazoles are fungistastic while triazoles are funcidal b. triazoles are more specific for fungal syndrome cyt P450 enzymes c. imidazoles are used only for superficial infections while triazoles are used for only systemic infection d. all of the above e. none of the above
Q13. Which is NOT true of terbinafine
a. Its administration causes accumulation of the sterol squalene, which is toxic to the fungal organism b. It is an allylamine c. Terbinafine is mainly a keratophilic medication d. Its parenteral use in not recommended e. It is not active against Dermatophytes and Candida spp
Q14. Dapsone, CORRECT statement
a. not well absorbed after oral administration b. poorly distributed in the body c. main mechanism of action is through inhibition of mycobacterial cell wall synthesis d. is excreted mainly through the bile e. none of the above
Q15. Chloroquine, WRONG statement
a. implicated in the development of Bull\'s eye maculopathy b. causes more pruritus than amodiaquine c. Parenteral administration of chloroquine is associated with severe hypotension and cardiac arrest d. all of the above e. none of the above
Q16. Albendazole. WRONG statement
a. affect microtubular function in round worm, pinworm and hookworm b. Oral bioavailability is increased when given with a fatty meal c. is the benzimidazole of choice in the treatment of neurocystercosis d. all of the above e. none of the above
Q17. Benzimidazoles, WRONG statement
a. generally contraindicated in pregnancy and infants b. Sulfoxide is the metabolite of albendazole believed to be responsible for its pharmacological properties c. Thiabendazole is the benzimidazole with has the most side effects d. mechanism of action is through inhibition of microtubule polymerisation e. none of the above
Q18. INCORRECT statement concerning antimalarial agents
a. Mefloquine is associated with neuro-psychiatric disturbances b. Quinine causes dose-dependent toxic effects c. Primaquine is associated with causing an acute hemolytic reaction in patients with G6PD deficiency d. all of the above e. none of the above
Q19. INCORRECT statement concerning antimalaral agents
a. Primaquine is gametocidal against P. falciparum b. Quinine is the drug of choice for cerebral malaria c. Artemisinin Derivatives are the most rapidly acting schizonticides d. all of the above e. none of the above
Q20. Flucytosine, CORRECT statement
a. is contraindicated with Amphotericin B b. side effects are due to metabolism to Fluorouracil by mammalian cells c. fungicidal effects due to DNA synthesis inhibition d. all of the above e. none of the above
Q21. Antibiotic usage, INCORRECT statement
a. superinfections are more associated with broad spectrum antibiotics b. combination therapy is the gold standard for poly microbial infections c. important consideration before selecting an antibiotic for patient include age, pregnancy, allergy and pharmacogenetics d. all of the above e. none of the above
Q22. The Mazzotti reaction, INCORRECT statement
a. It is a hypersensitivity reactions characterized by fever, urticaria and other lymph nodes b. It correlates with degree of helminth infestation c. It is caused by diethylcarbamazine and ivermectine d. Diagnosis is by the skin patch test e. none of the above
Q23. Which of the following drugs do NOT match their mechanism of action
a. Mebendazole increases permeability of worms to Ca2+ b. Praziquantel blocks glucose uptake and utilisation c. Diethyl carbamazine inhibit anaerobic production of ATP d. Niclosamide sensitize microfilaria to phagocytosis e. none of the above
Q24. Artemisinin is all but ONE
a. a sesquiterpene lactone endoperoxide b. Produces free radicals following iron catalysed cleavage of the artemisinin endoperoxide bridge in the parasite food vacuole c. generates heme which disrupts plasmodia mitochondrial electron transport d. standard of care for the treatment of severe falciparum malaria when given intravenousIy e. Has effect on plasmodium hepatic stages
Q25. Which statement is NOT true of Halofantrine
a. Marked by irregular absorption b. Useful for chloroquine resistant strains of P. falciparum c. Contraindicated in cardiac arrhythmia d. Causes elevation in liver enzyme levels e. Safe in second and third trimester of pregnancy
Q26. Rifampin, INCORRECT statement
a. is bactericidal for actively dividing cells b. it may colour secretions such as urine and tears c. can prevent transmission of infection in two weeks d. all of the above e. none of the above
Q27. INH, INCORRECT statement
a. peripheral neuritis can be reversed by pyridoxine b. metabolism is influenced by pharmacogenetics c. is bactericidal for actively dividing cells d. is useful as monotherapy for prophylaxis e. none of the above
a. cephalosporins are classified into generations based on their activity against gram negative bacteria b. Clavulanic acid is used to expand the spectrum of amoxicillin c. Praziquantel is preferred over niclosamide for Taenia solium infestation because it does not lead to digestion of worm and kills encysted larvae, so that chances of cysticercosis are minimized d. Amphotericin B and Flucytosine is the combination of choice in cryptococcal meningitis e. none of the above
Q29. Which is FALSE concerning the side effect of the aminoglycosides
a. Ototoxicity from vestibular or cochlear damage b. Nephrotoxicity due to drug plasmodia mitochondrial electron accumulation in the proximal tubules is reversible c. Neuromuscular Blockade is potentiated by anaesthesia d. They pre-synaptically inhibits the release of acetylcholine and post- synaptically decrease sensitivity to acetylcholine e. None of the above
Q30. The tetracyclines and the aminoglycosides
a. both bind to the 30S ribosomal subunit and are bactericidal b. are broad spectrum antibiotics which enter susceptible cells by passive, the active transport c. both cause nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity d. all of the above e. none of the above
Q31. Which of the following is INCORRECT?
a. chemoprophylaxis prevents progression of latent tubercular infection to active disease b. corticosteroids should not be routinely prescribed in tubercular patients c. Rifampicin is used for chemoprophylaxis of meningococcal and H. influenzae meningitis and to eradicate the carrier state d. most atypical mycobacteria are unaffected by Streptomycin cells e. none of the above
Q32. Which is INCORRECT concerning INH
a. inhibits cell wall mycolic acid synthesis and shows a genetic b. variation posseses selective bacteriostatic activity against mycobacteria but is bactericidal for actively dividing species c. INH induced peripheral neuritis appears to be commoner in slow acetylators d. drug metabolism can be induced via cytochrome P450 pathway e. None of the above
Q33. Which of the following is NOT true of the mechanisms of bacterial resistance
a. The drug not reaching the interior of the bacterial cell could result from the absence of or mutation of a porin b. Bacteria may have efflux pumps that that can transport drugs out of the cell c. Resistance to aminoglycosides may be due to the production of an aminoglycoside-modifying enzyme d. The common type of resistance to Isoniazid in tuberculosis is the failure of bacterial cells to activate the prodrug e. none of the above
Q34. Concerning bacterial resistance to antibiotics, which is UNTRUE
a. stems primarily from antibiotic abuse b. An organism is considered resistant to a drug if bacterial inhibitory concentration exceeds that which can be achieved safely in vivo c. The most important factor that determines resistance of microorganisms to antimicrobial agents is the concentration of the antibiotic at the site of infection d. all of the above e. none of the above
Q35. Concerning bacterial resistance to antibiotics, which is UNTRUE
a. include plasmid-controlled efflux pumps, drug inactivation and target alteration b. For infections restricted to the urinary tract, a drug concentrated in urine may be effective even if in vitro tests indicate that the responsible bacterial agent is \"resistant\" c. If the concentration of an antibiotic required to inhibit or kill an agent also produces toxic effects, the responsible agent is said to be \"resistant.\" d. all of the above e. none of the above
a. Superinfections are avoided by use of narrow spectrum agents b. Drug-drug cross allerginicity implies that same adverse effects could occur if one or the other drug is administered c. Empirical therapy means the use of a combination of antibiotics or a single broad-spectrum agent, to cover all possible pathogens before the infecting organism has been defined d. Bacteriostatic agents growth at stationary phase while bactericidal agents puts bacterial growth at decline phase e. None of the above
Q37. The indications for the clinical use of combinations of antimicrobial agents are all of the following EXCEPT
a. Empirical therapy b. Treatment of polymicrobial infection c. Treatment of resistant strains d. To enhance antimicrobial activity e. All of the above
Q38. In which of the following statements do choloroquine differ from quinine?
a. is a highly lipophylic weak base that concentrates in the acidic food vacuoles of plasmodia b. selective toxicity is due to the accumulation of haem c. Vd is dependent on level of parasitaemia d. has a narrow therapeutic window and should be administered with caution e. none of the above
Q39. Which of the following adverse effects is INCORRECT
a. vincristine: neurotoxicity b. cyclophosphamide: haemorrhagic cystitis c. doxorubicin: cardiotoxicity d. bleomycin: pulmonary fibosis e. cisplatin: myelosuppression
Q40. Clofazimine, CORRECT statement
a. usually used in combination with dapsone in the treatment of leprosy b. well absorbed after oral administration c. excretion is mainly through bile d. the drug is stored mainly in the skeletal muscles e. none of the above
Q41. Amphotericin B, INCORRECT statement
a. causes impairment of the normal permeability of fungal cell membrane b. a shock-like fall in blood pressure may occur during IV infusion c. renal toxicity is common, is dose- dependent and may be severe d. drug of choice for fungal meningitis e. none of the above
Q42. Which is INCORRECT concerning antimycobacterial agents
a. Rifampicin has greater clinical activity against M. tuberculosis than rifamycin b. Rifampicin has a commensurate volume of distribution c. Resistance to Pyrazinamide is mainly through impaired uptake d. Ethambutol is a synthetic heat stable bacteriostatic cell wall inhibitor which is relatively safe in liver impairment e. none of the above
Q43. CORRECT statement concerning aminoglycosides and tetracyclines
a. are both bactericidal drugs that bind to 30s ribosomal subunit b. are broad spectrum protein synthesis inhibitors which are both concentrated in susceptible cells c. have similar mechanisms of resistance and similar adverse effect profiles d. all of the above e. none of the above
Q44. Antibiotic use, CORRECT statement
a. narrow-spectrum antibiotic often used for empirical therapy b. broad sprectrum antibiotics are often used for prophylactic therapy c. combination therapy decreases the risk for adverse effects and drug resistance d. all of the above e. none of the above
Q45. Which of the following is correct about isoniazid?
a. slow acetylators are more prone to hepatitis than fast acetylators b. Isoniazid causes peripheral neuropathy because it increases the metabolism of pyridoxine c. Peripheral neuropathy is more common in fast acetylators than slow acetylators d. Isoniazid and rifampin are very active against M. tuberculosis and atypical mycobacterial species e. Isoniazid is bactericidal and bacteriostatic, depending on the state of the mycobacterium
Q46. Tetracyclines, WRONG statement
a. are drugs of choice in the treatment of cholera b. are contraindicated in pregnant women and children less than 8 years c. Doxicycline is eliminated only in bile d. are bacteriostatic e. modify intestinal flora to the same extent
Q47. Nitrofurantoin and Metronidazole, wrong statement
a. are usually completely absorbed from the gut b. are prodrugs c. have intermediates that colour urine d. have intermediates that damage DNA e. none of the above
Q48. Pyrantel pamoate, INCORRECT statement
a. Pyrantel Pamoate causes excessive nicotinic excitation b. Acts as a depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent c. Piperazine antagonizes the anthelmintic action of the pyrantel pamoate d. Neuromuscular junction of helminth muscle is more sensitive to the drug than it is in humans e. None of the above
Q49. Isoniazid, FALSE statement
a. It is evenly distributed throughout body including the central nervous system b. slow acetylators respond better to the and manifest higher incidence of adverse effects c. notable adverse effects include hepatotoxicity, psychosis and Encephalopathy d. all of the above e. none of the above
Q50. Choose the INCORRECT statement
a. Sulfonamides are effective in urinary tract infections b. Sulfonamides are mostly effective at alkaline pH c. Sulfonamides action can be potentiated by combining with dihydrofolate reductase inhibitor d. Sulfonamides can cause crystalluria in the elderly e. None of the above
a. Cross-resistance occurs among members of fluoroquinolones b. Fluoroquinolones have bioavailability of 80-95% after oral administration c. Fluoroquinolones have limited distributed in body tissues d. Levofloxacin permit once-daily dosing because it has a long half-life e. Oral absorption of fluoroquinolones is impaired by divalent cations
Q52. Which of the following features are peculiar to the fluoroquinolones?
a. Broader gram-negative activity, less protein binding, longer half-life b. Broader gram-negative activity, more protein binding, longer half-life c. Broader gram-positive activity, less protein binding, shorter half-life d. Broader gram-positive activity, more protein binding, shorter half-life e. all of the above
Q53. Concerning the tetracyclines, WRONG ststement
a. differences in clinical efficacy is primarily pharmacokinetic based b. susceptible cells must concentrate the drug c. are finding increasing clinical application because of their broad- spectrum antibacterial activity d. are contraindicated in pregnancy and toddlers e. none of the above
Q54. Gentamycin and Metronidazole, WRONG statement
a. are bactericidal agents b. have organism dependent effects c. mechanism of action is dependent on mode of respiration d. are prodrugs that need activation e. none of the above
Q55. INCORRECT statement concerning the penicillins
a. antibacterial spectrum is determined side chain b. pharmacologic activity is determined by the ẞ lactam ring c. activity is complicated by ẞ lactamases d. overall pharmacological acidity is determined by route of administration e. none of the above
Q56. Resistance to antimicrobial agents can be due to any of the followings EXCEPT
a. modification of the antibiotic target site b. replacement of the target site c. enzyme inactivation and modification d. efflux and reduced permeability e. none of the above
Q57. Combination chemotherapy
a. involves the use of at least three drug b. fixed dose combinations antimicrobials are generally preferred individual components c. enhances the emergence of resistant strains d. used in empirical treatment of several infections e. interactions between the agents use in such therapy do not usually have any consequence on the host
Q58. The following statement correctly pairs the antifungal drugs with its typical adverse affect EXCEPT?
a. Amphotericin B - normocytic anaemia b. Griseofulvin - Photosensitivity c. Flucytosine - myelosuppression d. Ketoconazole - menstrual irregularities e. None of the above COMPENDIUM SYSTEM 4 CHEMOTHERAPY & TOXICOLOGY
Q59. Which of these antimalarials is not an 8-amino quinolone?
a. Primaquine b. Amodiaquine c. Tafenaquine d. Pamaquine e. None of the above
Q60. Asymptomatic amebiasis should be treated with a luminal agent such as
a. Diloxanide furoate b. Metronidazole c. Chloroquine d. Tinidazole e. Dehydroemetine
Q61. Which of these antimalarial is associated with neuropsychiatric disturbances? (page 445 of Tara)
a. Chloroquine b. Mefloquine c. Quinine d. Proguanil e. Lumefantrine
Q62. Quinine. WRONG statement (page 444 of Tara)
a. recommended as a single agent for oral treatment of uncomplicated malaria due to chloroquine resistant P. falciparum strain b. drug of choice for cerebral malaria due to P. falciparum c. intravenous infusion causes hypoglycaemia d. causes a dose dependent toxicity: dizziness, nausea, diarrhea, tinnitus, blurred vision and impaired hearing e. None of the above
Q63. Which of the Following combination is a drug of choice in Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia?
a. Amphotericin B + itraconazole b. Sulfamethoxazole + Trimethoprim (page 372 of Tara) in patients with AIDS) c. Clotrimazole + Micafungi d. Pentamidine + Nystatin e. Ampotericin B + Fluorouracil
Q64. Which of the following statements regarding ergosterol is NOT correct?
a. Azoles inhibit the breakdown of ergosterol to Ianosterol by interfering with 14a- methylase b. Ergosterol biosynthesis pathway is fungal Specific c. It also known as Provitamin D2 d. over expression of 14a methylase has been implicated in resistance development in some antifungi e. Amphotericin B bind to ergosterol and alters the permeability of the cell by forming pores in the membrane
Q65. Amphotericin B mechanism of action
a. inhibition of protein synthesis b. alternation of cell wall permeability (page 423 of Tara) c. Disruption of DNA-RNA Synthesis d. Inhibition of fungi cell mitosis e. causing the accumulation of toxic squalene epoxidase in the fungi cell
Q66. Echinocandins exert its antifungal effect by one of the following mechanisms (page 424 of Tara)
a. Forming amphipathic pores in the cell wall causing cell lysis b. inhibiting the synthesis of ẞ(1- 3- glucan synthase enzyme in the cell wall c. Antagonizing vitamin D stimulated cell wall integrity mechanism d. inhibiting fungi squalene monoxygenase (2,3 epoxidaze) in the fungal cell wall synthesis pathway e. inhibiting ergosterol biosynthesis
Q67. Which is NOT an adverse effect of Amphotericin B: (page 852 of 12 edition Kartzung and page 4243 of 4th edition Tarah)
a. Fever b. Muscle spasms c. Respiratory stridor d. Ataxis e. Nephrotoxicity
Q68. One of these is NOT true of Terbinafine (429 of Tara)
a. Its administration accumulation causes of the sterol squalene, which is toxic to the fungal organism b. It is an allylamine c. Terbinafine is mainly a keratophilic medication d. Its parenteral use is not recommended e. It is not active against Dermatophytes and Candida spp
Q69. Which of these is not a blood schizonticide?
a. Dihydroartemisinin (pg 921 of 12th edition Kartzung) b. Chloroquine c. Pyrimethamine d. Mefloquine e. Quinine
Q70. Artemisinin, WRONG statement (pg 920 of 12th edition Kartzung and
a. a sesquiterpene lactone endoperoxide b. generates heme which disrupts plasmodia mitochondrial electron transport c. Standard of care for the treatment of severe falciparum malaria when given intravenously d. Has effect on plasmodium hepatic stages (page 921 of 12th edition Kartzung) e. None of the above
Q71. Anti-malaria implicated in the development of Bull\'s eye maculopathy?
a. Chloroquine b. Artemisinin c. Sulfadoxine-pyrimethamine d. Halofantrine e. None of the above
Q72. Which of these antimalarial does not have antibiotic property?
a. Chloroquine b. Cotrimoxazole c. Atovaquone d. Artemether e. None of the above
Q73. Quinine, WRONG statement
a. recommended as a single agent for oral treatment of uncomplicated malaria due to P. falciparum strain b. drug of choice for cerebral malaria due to P. falciparum c. intravenous Infusion causes hypoglycaemia d. causes a dose dependent toxicity:dizziness, nausea, diarrhea, tinnitus, blurred vision and impaired hearing? e. None of the above
Q74. Which statement is NOT true of Halofantrine: (page 927 of 12th edition Kartzung)
a. Marked by irregular absorption b. Useful for chloroquine resistant strains of P. falciparum c. Contraindicated in cardiac arrhythmia d. Causes elevation in liver enzyme levels e. Safe in second and third trimester pregnancy
Q75. Steven Johnson\'s syndrome is associated with which antimalaria (pg 926 of 12th edition Kartzung)
a. Sulfadoxine+ Pyrimethamine b. Chloroquine c. Melfloquine d. Artemether e. Primaquine
Q76. Chloroquine resistance can be by which of the following mechanism
a. Elevated level of drug efflux b. Reduced accumulation of chloroquine in the resistant parasite c. Mutation in putative chloroquine transporter d. All of the above e. None of the above
Q77. Praziquntel WRONG statement (page 1088 of 12th edition G&G and pg 458 of 4th edition Tara)
a. is considered safe in pregnancy b. disrupts helminth tegument to unmask antigens which are identifiable by the host immunity c. increases Ca2+ influx with attendant rapid contractions and tonic paralysis d. drug of choice for treatment of schistosomias e. Activation of GABA receptors, leading to increased influx of chloride ions and flaccid paralysis
Q78. Concerning the benzimidazoles WRONG statement
a. act by inhibition of microtubule polymerisation b. thiabendazole has the most adverse effects c. Sulfoxide is the metabolite responsible for the pharmacological action of albendazole d. they are generally contraindicated in pregnancy and infants e. are the drug of choice for mixed onchocerciasis and filiariasis infection
Q79. Primaquine, WRONG statement (pg 446 of 4th edition Tara)
a. most commonly associated with causing an acute hemolytic reaction in patients with G6PD deficiency b. is gametocidal and so can be used to prevent spread of infection c. can act as a blood schizont in susceptible species d. used to kill malaria parasites in the liver e. None of the above
Q80. Mustine, CORRECT statement
a. known as RCNU b. biological activity it due to presence of unichloroethyl groups c. the carbonium ion released causes cell death d. extravasation is treated with hypertonic sodium thiosulphate e. is cell cycle specific.
Q81. Busulphan, TRUE statement
a. Busulfan is metabolised to methane and sulfonic acid b. busulfan undergoes cleavage at its alkylmethyl bond c. BCNU\'s alkylating Intermediate causes alkylation of lysine residues d. all of the above e. none of the above
Q82. Which is wrong about anthracyclines (pg 956 of 12th edition kartzung)
a. include Daunorubicin and Doxorubicin b. affect DNA synthesis by blockage of topoisomerase c. alter fluidity and ion transport d. generate semiquinone free radicals e. isolated from Streptomyces organisms
Q83. Methotrexate, WRONG statement
a. Is cell cycle specific b. inhibits dihydrofolate reductase c. Inhibit the conversion of folate to dihydrofolate d. slows recruitment of cells from the Gl to S-phase e. is also an immunosuppressant
Q84. Aminoglycosides, WRONG statement
a. must be administered parenterally for systemic effects b. worsen the neuromuscular blockage of neuromuscular blocker c. elimination correlation with creatinine / clearance d. causes irreversible ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity e. none of the above
Q85. About Vinca alkaloids, WRONG statement (pg 1350 of 11th edition G&G)
a. include vincristine and vinblastine b. obtained from the Vinca rosea c. M-phase specific d. produce telephase arrest e. block mitosis resulting in arrest of cell division and cell death.
Q86. The following drugs matches with their mechanism of action
a. Pyrantel Pamoate causes excessive nicotinic excitation b. Mebendazole increases permeability of worms to Ca2+ c. Praziquantel blocks glucose uptake and utlilsation d. Diethyl carbamazine Inhibit anaerobic production of ATP e. Niclosamide sensitize microfilaria to phagocytosis
Q87. Which of these tetracyclines is least likely to modify intestinal flora
a. Chlortetracycline b. Methacyline c. Doxycycline d. Demeclocycline e. Tetracycline
Q88. Nitrofuran and metronidazole wrong statement (pg 1058 of 11th edition G&G, pg 1123 of 11th edition G&G, pg 892 of 12th edition Kartzung)
a. are usually completely absorbed from the gut b. are prodrugs c. have intermediates that colour urine d. have intermediates that damage DNA e. none of the above
Q89. Quine FALSE statement
a. Is a highly lipophylic weak base that concentrates in the acidic food vacuoles of plasmodia b. selecive toxicity is due to the accumulation of haem c. volume of distribution is dependent on level of parasitaemia d. has a narrow therapeutic window and should administered with caution e. none of the above
Q90. The selective toxicity of pyrantel pamoate is primarily because
a. Pyrantal pamoate affects surface proteins in helminthes which are not present in humans b. Pyrantal pamoate causes paralysis of helminth muscle c. Neuromuscular junction of helminth muscle is more sensitive to the drug than it is in humans d. Humans lack the enzyme require to activate the drug e. None of the above
Q91. Ivermentin, WRONG statement (pg 457 of 4th edition Tara)
a. enhances GABA receptors on the neuromuscular junction b. Drug of choice for onchocerciasis c. Block transmission of nerve signal by interacting with glutamate gated chloride channel d. causes the mazzotti reaction e. none of the above
a. inhibit synthesis of mycolic present in mycobacterial cell wall b. resistance is mostly by alternation of gene product c. induces drug metabolism via reduction of CYP450 d. peripheral neuritis reduced by INH appear to be more common in slow acetylators e. none of the above
Q93. Which one of the following statements about the mechanisms of action of antiviral drugs is least accurate?
a. The Initial step in activation of famclovir in HSV-infected cells is its phosphorylation by viral thymidine kinase b. The reverse transcriptase of HIV is 30-50 times more sensitive to inhibition by Indinavir than host cell DNA polymerases c. Gancicolvir inhibits viral DNA polymerase but does not cause chain termination d. Increased activity of host cell phosphodiesterases that degrade tRNA is one of the antiviral actions of Interferons e. Foscarnet has no requirememt for activation by phosphorylatlon
Q94. An organism is considered resistant to a drug
a. if there is treatment failure b. if an established bactericidal drug produces bacteriostatic effects for a said organism c. if bacterial inhibitory concentration exceeds that which can be achieved safely in vivo d. if the minimum inhibitory concentration for the bacteria is exceeded e. all of the above
Q95. Which of the following modes of bacterial antibiotic resistance isn't under plasmid control?
a. absence of porin channel b. presence of efflux pumps c. drug inactivation d. target alteration e. none of the above
Q96. Superinfections (page 371 of 4th edition Tara)
a. are avoided by one of broad spectrum antibiotic b. are avoided by use of narrow Spectrum agents c. are avoided by use of extended spectrum agents d. are avoided by use of combination therapy e. all of the above
Q97. Concerning bacterial resistance to antibiotics
a. stems primarily from antibiotic abuse b. caused by use of combined antimicrobial therapy c. also caused by use of broad spectrum antibiotics d. leads to super infections e. all of the above
Q98. Which of the following general statement concerning the activity of antibacterial agent is untrue?
a. An agent characterized \"resistant\" by invitro testing methods never responds to vivo to antimicrobial therapy b. The presence of pus, foreign bodies and low pH at the site of an infection may sometimes enhance antimicrobial activity c. For Infections restricted to urinary tract, a drug concentrated urine may be effective even if in- vitro tests indicate that the responsible bacterial agent is resistant\" d. If the concentration of an antibiotic required to inhibit or kill an agent also produces toxic effects, the responsible agent is said to be \'resistant.\" e. all of the above
Q99. The measures proposed to prevent or reduce antimicrobial resistance include all the following EXCEPT
a. Appropriate use of vaccination b. Prompt use of combination antibiotics to check an infection c. Early involvement of infectious disease experts d. Judicious use and attention to indwelling catheters e. All of the above
Q100. Which of the general statement concerning the use of antibiotic is untrue?
a. Empirical therapy means the use of a combination of antibiotics or a single broad spectrum agent to cover all possible pathogens before the infecting Organism has been defined b. It is usually possible to identify bacterial responsible for an infection by the Gram\'s stain and this precludes the need for culture of a sample from the presumed site of infection or blood c. Definitive therapy of infection is always determined by in vitro susceptibility testing following identification organism d. The bacteria of an infection usually dictates the choice of drug and route of administration e. None of the above
Q101. Correct matching of drug & indication. (pg 454 of 4th edition Tara)
a. Mebendazole- Trichuriasis b. Niclosamide-Ascariasis c. Metronidazole- Dracunliasis d. Pyrantelpalmoate- Fascioliasis e. Ivermectin- Neurocystechosis
Q102. Drug-drug cross allerginicity implies
a. if both drugs are administered together, synergistic adverse effects occur b. if both drugs are administered together, additive adverse effects occur c. same adverse effects could occur if one or the other drug is administered d. if both drugs are administered together, the adverse effects of one drug is diametrically opposite to those the other drug e. none of the above
Q103. The Indications for the clinical use of combinations of antimicrobial agents are all of the following EXCEPT (page 372 of 4th edition Tara)
a. Empirical therapy b. Treatment of polymicrobial infection c. reduce side effect profile d. To enhance antimicrobial activity and reduce development of resistance e. All of the above
Q104. Which of the following group of drugs do not affect formed cellular structures?
a. Polymyxins b. Polyene antibiotics c. Benzimidazoles d. Vinca alkaloids e. none of the above
Q105. Praziquantel is preferred over niclosamide for Taenia solium infestation because
a. It achieves higher cure rates b. It produces fewer side effects c. It does not lead to digestion of worm and kills encysted larvae, so that chances of cysticercosis are minimized d. all of the above e. None of the above
Q106. Piperazine antagonizes the anthelmintic action of the following drug
a. Pyrantel pamoate b. Mebendazole c. Albendazole d. Niclosamide e. None of the above
Q107. Which of the following general statements concerning the use of antibiotics is untrue?
a. Empirical therapy means the use of a combination of antibiotics or a single broad spectrum agent, to cover all possible pathogens before the infecting organism has been defined b. It is usually possible to identify bacteria responsible for an infection by the Gram's stain and this precludes the need for culture of a sample from the presumed site of infection or blood c. Definitive therapy of an infection is always determined by in vitro susceptibility testing following identification of the infecting organism d. The location of an infection usually dictates the choice of drug and route of administration e. None of the above
Q108. Drug-drug cross allerginicity implies that
a. if both drugs are administered together, synergistic adverse effects occur b. if both drugs are administered together, additive adverse effects occur c. same adverse effects could occur if one or the other drug is administered d. if both drugs are administered together, the adverse effects of one drug is diametrically opposite to those of the other drug e. none of the above
a. are avoided by use of broad spectrum antibiotics b. are avoided by use of narrow spectrum agents c. are avoided by use of extended spectrum agents d. are avoided by use of combination therapy e. all of the above
Q110. Which of the following general statements concerning the activity of antibacterial agents is untrue?
a. An agent characterized as "resistant" by in vitro testing methods never responds in vivo to antimicrobial therapy b. The presence of pus, foreign bodies and low pH at the site of an infection may sometimes enhance antimicrobial activity c. For infections restricted to the urinary tract, a drug concentrated in urine may be effective even if in vitro tests indicate that the responsible bacterial agent is "resistant" d. If the concentration of an antibiotic required to inhibit or kill an agent also produces toxic effects, the responsible agent is said to be "resistant." e. all of the above
Q111. Cellular structures targeted by chemotherapeutic agents include all except
a. plasma membrane b. microtubules c. food vacuoles d. smooth muscle e. none of the above
Q112. Which of the following statements is not true of Giardiasis
a. Giardiasis is treated using the same drugs used for amebiasis b. Infections in the male are usually asymptomatic c. It is common in people who consume improperly treated surface water d. B Only e. A & B
Q113. In the treatment of malaria, Primaquine is useful because of its ability to destroy malarial
a. Primary tissue schizonts b. bloodschizonts c. oocysts d. sporozoites e. trophozoites
Q114. An infection caused by extraintestinalEntameoebahistolytica can be effectively treated with (1) Metronidazole (2) Paromomycin (3) Chloroquine (4) Emetine
a. 1 only b. 1&2 only c. 1&4 only d. 1&3 only e. All
Q115. All the following antibiotics inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis EXCEPT
a. bacitracin b. cycloserine c. cephalothin d. vancomycin e. polymyxins
Q116. Vertigo, inability to perceive termination of movement, and difficulty in sitting or standing without visual clues are some of the toxic reactions that are likely to occur in about 75 percent of patients who
a. are allergic to penicillin b. receive tetracycline therapy c. receive amphotericin B therapy d. receive streptomycin therapy e. receive isoniazid therapy for tuberculosis
Q117. All the following penicillins are resistant to penicillinase EXCEPT
a. oxacillin b. cloxacillin c. ticarcillin d. nafcillin e. dicloxacillin
Q118. Penicillin has little or no antibacterial action against
a. Treponemapallidum b. actively growing bacterial cells c. meningococci d. resting bacterial cells
Q119. Which of the following cephalosporins would have increased activity against anaerobic bacteria such as Bacteroidesfragilis?
a. Cephalothin b. Cephalexin c. Cefamandole d. Cefoxitin e. None
Q120. Antimicrobial agents that are primarily administered topically include (1) neomycin (2) polymyxin (3) bacitracin (4) streptomycin
a. 1 & 2 only b. 2 & 3 only c. 1, 2, 3 only d. All e. 1 only
Q121. True statements concerning griseofulvin include that it (1) inhibits the growth of dermatophytes (2) inhibits cell wall synthesis (3) is administered primarily by the oral route (4) is used primarily as a short-term drug
a. 1 & 3 only b. 2 & 3 only c. 1, 2, 3 only d. All e. 1 only
Q122. Accepted techniques for determining penicillin allergy include (1) asking for a history of reactions (2) administering cephalosporins and observing for allergic reactions (3) skin testing with penicilloyl-polylysine (4) intravenous testing with penicillin G
a. 1 & 3 only b. 2 & 3 only c. 1, 2, 3 only d. All e. 1 only
Q123. Which drug is effective in the treatment of asymptomatic luminal amoebiasis?
a. Diluxonide furoate b. Sulfasalazine c. Metronidazole d. Chloroquine
Q124. Correct statements concerning cephalosporins in comparison with penicillins include which of the following? (1) Theirstructures are closely related (2) Their mechanisms of action are analogous (3) Cephalosporins have an unusually broader antimicrobial spectrum (4) Their hypersensitivity reactions can produce similar symptoms, including anaphylactic reactions
a. 1 & 3 only b. 2 & 3 only c. 1, 2, 3 only d. All e. 1 only
Q125. Adverse reactions associated with the antibiotic moxalactam include which of the following? (1) Hypersensitivity reactions (2) Neutropenia (3) Hypoprothrombinemia (4) Thrombocytopenia
a. 1 & 3 only b. 2 & 3 only c. 1, 2, 3 only d. All e. 1 only
Q126. there is cross-sensitization and cross-reaction to all penicillins (2) sensitization is directly related to total dose and duration of exposure (3) penicilloic acid is one of the antigenic determinants (4) there is little or no chance of fatalities
a. 1 & 3 only b. 2 & 4 only c. 1, 2, 3 only d. All e. 1 only
Q127. Resistance to penicillins can be caused by which of the following? (1) β-Lactamase (penicillinase) activity (2) Amidase activity (3) Lack of specific receptors or permeability (4) Decarboxylase activity
a. 1 & 3 only b. 2 & 4 only c. 1, 2, 3 only d. All e. 1 only
Q128. True statements concerning cephalosporin antibiotics include which of the following? (1 Cephalosporins are bactericidal against multiplying bacteria (2) Cephalosporins and penicillinshave a similar spectrum of activity (3) Cross-hypersensitivity exists between cephalosporins and penicillins (4) Cephalosporins are resistant to inactivation by (β-lactamase
a. 1 & 3 only b. 2 & 4 only c. 1, 2, 3 only d. All e. 1 only
Q129. Neuromuscular blockade produced by tubocurarine is potentiated by which of the following agents? (1) Neomycin (2) Polymyxin (3) Streptomycin (4) Penicillin
a. 1 & 3 only b. 2 & 4 only c. 1, 2, 3 only d. All e. 1 only For each of the drugs below, select the most suitable description
Q130. The use of methadone in the treatment of heroin addiction continues to be controversial. It would therefore be advantageous to find a substance with the beneficial effects of methadone, but without its undesirable characteristics. The correct statement is that
a. methadone is not physically addicting and therefore very useful in treating heroin addicts b. the withdrawal syndrome of methadone is of shorter duration than that of heroin c. propoxyphene may successfully suppress the withdrawal syndrome in heroin-addicted individuals d. although propoxyphene does block heroin withdrawal, it itself is not physically addicting e. propoxyphene may be successfully substituted for heroin in the addicted individual and abruptly discontinued after three to four weeks without signs of an abstinence syndrome
Q131. The duration of analgesia is one important characteristic which differentiates one opioid from another. Which opioid possesses the shortest duration of analgesia?
a. morphine b. hydromorphone c. codeine d. meperidine e. methadone CORRECT PHARM SYSTEM
Q132. Which of the following is not an 8-aminoquinolone?
a. Primaquine b. Tafenequine c. Pamaquine d. Amodiaquine
Q133. Which of these is not a blood schizonticide
a. Artesunate b. Pyrimethamine c. Chloroquine d. Mefloquine e. Quinine
Q134. Which of the following antimalaria is associated with mental disorders
a. Mefloquine b. Chloroquine c. Quinine
Q135. Steven Johnson's Syndrome is associated with which antimalalaria?
a. Sulphadoxine-Pyrimethamine b. Chloroquine c. Arthemeter d. Mefloquine
Q136. Which of the following antimalarial is not an antibiotic?
a. Artesunate b. Chloroquine c. Atovaquone d. None of the above
Q137. Quinine produces all the symptoms except
a. Tinnitus b. Headache c. Hyperglycaemia d. Dizziness e. Visual disturbances
Q138. Which antimalarial drug is implicated in the development of Bull's eyes maculopathy
a. Chloroquine b. Sulfadoxine-Pyrimethamine c. Mefloquine d. Artesunate
Q139. Which of the following statement concerning ergosterol is not correct
a. Azoles inhibit breakdown of Ergosterol to lanosterol by interfering with 14-a methylase b. Ergosterol synthesis is fungal specific c. Ergosterol is also known as provitamin D2 d. Over expression of 14-a methylase has been implicated in resistance development in some antifungal e. Amphotericin B binds to ergosterol alters permeability in the cell by forming pores in the cell membrane
Q140. Mechanism of action of Amphotericin B
a. Inhibition of protein synthesis b. Alteration of cell wall permeability c. Disruption of DNA/RNA Synthesis d. Inhibition of fungal cell mitosis e. Causes accumulation of squalene epoxidase
Q141. Echinocandins exert their antifungal agents by one of the following mechanisms
a. Forming amphipathic pores in the cell wall & causing cell wall lysis b. Inhibiting synthesis of B-1,3- glucan synthase enzyme in the cell wall c. Antagonizing Vit D stimulated cell wall integrity mechanism d. Inhibiting fungal squalene mono oxygenase(2,3- epoxidase) in the fungal cell wall synthesis pathway e. Inhibiting ergosterol biosynthesis
Q142. All but one is not an adverse effect of AMB
a. Respiratory stridor b. Fever c. Muscle spasms d. Ataxia e. Nephrotoxicity
Q143. One of these is not true of terbinafine
a. Its administration causes accumulation of sterol squalene which is toxic to the fungal organism b. It is an allylamine c. Terbinafine is mainly a keratophilic medication d. Its parenteral use is not recommended e. It is not active against dermatophytes & candida
Q144. All of the following questions concerning the antifungal azole drugs are correct except
a. Some of these agents inhibit CYP450 & cause plasma concentration of certain co administered drugs to build up b. Ketoconazole (Nizoral) has a greater likelihood of disrupting synthesis of sex steroids than either itraconazole or ketoconazole c. Both ketoconazole & itraconazole require gastric acidity for adequate oral absorption d. In clinical setting, Itraconazole & fluconazole are gradually been replaced by Ketoconazole e. None of the above
Q145. Which of the following antihelminthes is used in pregnancy
a. piperazine b. pyrantel pamoate c. albendazole d. Praziquantel e. None of the above
Q146. All of the following statements concerning specific antifungal drugs are correct except
a. Itraconazole is the agent of choice for chronic suppression of histoplasmosis in immunocompromised patients b. Itraconazole's excellent penetration into CNS allows its use in the treatment of fungal infections of CNS c. Itraconazole is approved for the treatment of Onchymycosis d. Both Ketoconazole & Itraconazole can cause cardiac arrhythmia when administered with Astemizole a long acting antihistamine e. All of the above
Q147. The following questions concerning antifungal agent griseofulvin are correct except
a. Both it and terbinafine are keratophilic b. It is primarily fungistatic as it acts by binding to fungal microtubules blocking cell division c. It completely eradicates dermatophyte in 48hours d. It has disulfiram effect e. None of the above
Q148. All of the following questions concerning flucytosine are correct except
a. It acts by inhibiting synthesis of ergosterol in fungi b. It is only useful as a single agent in treatment of chromomycosis c. Its principal toxicity is bone marrow depression d. Its dosage must be adjusted if renal function is compromised
Q149. All of the following questions concerning AMB are correct except
a. It can be destroyed by photo oxidation b. It is fungistatic at low concentration but fungicidal at high concentration c. It is well absorbed systemically when taken orally d. It is used clinically for several parasitic infections
Q150. All of the following questions concerning Amphotericin B are correct except
a. It is the main stay of therapy against serious systemic fungal infections b. It is often administered in combination with flucytosine c. Its maximum duration of therapy is usually determined by its hepatotoxicity d. Development of resistance to this agent during therapy is generally not a clinical problem
Q151. Piperazine antagonizes the mechanism of action of which of the following drugs?
a. Pyrantel palmoate b. Niclosamide c. Mebendazole d. Albendazole e. None of the above
Q152. Albendazole is less effective than Mebendazole in the following conditions
a. Hydratis disease b. Trichurisis c. Strongyloidosis d. Ascariasis e. None of the above
Q153. The following helminth disease can be treated with albendazole not mebendazole
a. Hook worm b. Thread worm c. Trichuriasis d. Neurocystercosis e. None of the above
Q154. Which of the following drugs enhance GABA actions on the neuromuscular junction of nematodes & arthropods
a. Glutamic acid b. Alvemectin c. Picrotoxin d. Pyrantel Palmoate e. Pyrimethamine
Q155. Which one of the following substances is used topically to treat scabies & pendiculosis
a. Lindane b. Nitrofurazone c. Polymixin B d. Silver sulphadalaxine
Q156. Regarding interferon, which of the following statement is not accurate?
a. At the course of treatment, most patients complain of flulike symptoms b. Indications include treatment of genital wax c. It is used in the management of Hepatits C d. Lamivudine interferes with its activity against Hepatitis B e. Toxicity includes Bone marrow suppression
Q157. Used in prophylaxis & treatment of infection caused by influenza virus. This drug facilitates clumping of virions and adherence of infected cells
a. Amantadine b. Efavirenz c. Oseltamivire d. Sequinavire
Q158. Which enzyme is used by HIV to form DNA in host cell
a. Restrictive endonuclease b. Reverse transcriptase c. DNA directed polymerase d. Both a & b e. None of the above
Q159. The antiviral medication that causes inhibition of DNA/RNA synthesis and also used in treatment of RSV is?
a. Amantadine b. Oseltamivir c. Ribavirin
Q160. Which of the following statements about the mechanism of action of antiviral drug is least accurate?
a. The initial step in activation of famciclovir in HIV infected cell is the phosphorylation by Viral thymidine kinase b. The reverse transcriptase of HIV is 30-50 times more sensitive to the inhibition by Indinavir than host cell DNA Polymerase c. Gamciclovir inhibit viral DNA Polymerase but does not cause chain termination d. Increase activity of host cell phosphodiesterases that degrade DNA is one of the antiviral actions of IFN e. Foscarnet has no requirement for activation by phosphorylation
Q161. Incorrect matching of drug & indication
a. Interferon A- Hep B& C b. Tamiflu- Inflenza A & B c. Gamciclovir- CMV d. Acyclovir- Varicella Zoster e. Ribavirin- Herpes Simplex
Q162. The following drugs matches with their mechanisms of action
a. Pyrantel pamoate causes excessive nicotinic stimulation b. Mebendazole increases permeability of worms to Ca2+ c. Praziquantel blocks glucose uptake & utilisation d. Diethyl carbamezine inhibits anaerobic production of ATP e. Niclosamide sensitizes microfilaria to phagocytosis
Q163. Target areas on DNA for alkylating agent
a. 1N of guanine b. 6N of guanine c. 7N of adenine d. 1N of adenine ( In general base alkylation predominantly occurs on position guanine 7N and O6, adenine 1N and 3N, and cytosine 3N) e. All of the above
Q164. Chloroquine resistance can be by which of the following mechanisms?
a. Elevated level of drug efflux b. Decreased accumulation of chloroquine in the resistant parasite c. Mutations in PRCT d. All of the above e. None of the above
Q165. Cyclophosphamide, true statement (meant to be False Statement)
a. It's a nitrogen mustard b. It is metabolised to 2-hydroxy cyclophosphamide c. Phospharamide mustard is responsible for its cytotoxic effect d. It is metabolised by CYP e. N acetylcysteine is responsible for its adverse effects
a. Busulphan is metabolized to methane sulphonic acid b. Busulphan undergoes cleavage at its alkyl methyl bond c. BCNU alkylating metabolite causes alkylation of lysine residues d. All of the above e. None of the above
Q167. Which is the wrong about anthracyclines
a. Include daunorubicin and doxorubicin b. affects DNA synthesis by blockade of topoisomerase I c. Alters fluidity and ion transport d. Generates free radicals e. Generated from streptomyces organism
Q168. About Vinca alkaloids. Wrong statement
a. Include vincristine, vinblastine & vindescine b. Obtained from vinca rosea c. M-phase specific d. Produce telophase arrest e. Blocks mitosis resulting in arrest of cell division & death
Q169. Correct matching of drug and indication
a. Mebendazole\...\..... Trichuriasis b. Niclosamide\...\...\...Ascariasis c. Metronidazole\...\....Drancontiadis d. Pyrantel Pamoate\...\...Fascioliasis e. Ivermectin\...\...Neurocysticercosis QUESTIONS 3 - 6 For each numbered phrase, Select ONE drug (A-E) that is most closely associated with it. Each drug (A-E) may be selected once, more than once, or not at all
Q170. All of the following statements about Mebendazole are correct EXCEPT
a. Contraindicated in pregnant women b. Drug of choice in the treatment of Whipworm infections c. Effective by oral administration d. Active against cestodes e. Interferes with glucose uptake by the parasite
Q171. The following Anthelmintic has been found to be safe during pregnancy
a. Thiabendazole b. Piperazine c. Albendazole d. Pyrantel Pamoate e. None of the above
Q172. The drug of choice for Neurocysticercosis
a. Albendazole b. Niclosamide c. Praziquantel d. Ivermectin e. Levamisole
Q173. Which of the following is not a Protease Inhibitor?
a. Ritonavir b. Amprenavir c. Tenofovir d. Sequinavir e. Nelfinavir
Q174. Incorrect matching of drug and indication
a. Interferon-α\.....Hepatitis B and C b. Tamiflu\...\.....Influenza A and B c. Gancyclovir\...\....Cytomegalovirus d. Acyclovir\...\.....Varicella-Zoster e. Ribavirin\...\...\...Herpes Simplex
Q175. Which of the following combination therapy incorrectly describes HIV multidrug regimen commonly referred as "HAART: Highly Active Anti-Retroviral Therapy"?
a. Stavudine + lamivudine + nevirapine b. Abacavir + emtricitabine + efavirenz c. Tenofovir + lamivudine + Delavirdine d. Zidovudine + lamivudine + Tenofovir e. Didanosine + lamivudine + efavirenz
Q176. Drug-drug cross allerginicty implies that
a. if both drugs are administered together, synergistic adverse effects b. if both drugs are administered together, additive adverse effects occur c. some adverse effects could occur if one or the other drug is administered d. if both drugs are administered together, the adverse effects of one drug is diametrcally opposite to those of the other drug e. none of the above 12 The indications for the clinical use of combinations of antimicrobial agents are all of the following except
Q177. Which antifungal agent has organism dependent effects?
a. Amphoterisin B b. Flucytosine c. Azoles d. Terbinafine e. Griseofulvine
Q178. Which antifungal agent has the broadest spectrum of activity?
a. Amphotericin B b. Flucytosine c. Azoles d. Terbinafine e. Griseofulvine
Q179. Halogenated quinolones
a. are bactericidal b. principal side effect is nausea, vomiting, and abdominal discomfort c. exhibit selective toxicity d. all of the above e. none of the above
Q180. Folate inhibitors, Correct statement
a. Proguanil is administered weekly in sicklers b. Pyrimethamine is administered daily in pregnancy c. the marked synergy of Sulphadoxine Pyrimethamine is due to sequential inhibition d. all of the above e. none of the above
Q181. The advantages of the Artemisimin Combination Therapy include all except
a. prevention of recrudescence b. prevention of relapse c. prevention of resistance d. all of the above e. none of the above
Q182. Rapidly acting blood schizonticides generally act by interfering with plasmodial haemoglobin metabolism Which of the following rapidly acting blood schizonticides have a different mechanism of action?
a. Chloroquine b. Quinine c. Lumephantrine d. Atremisinin derivatives e. none of the above
Q183. Antimalarial agents, untrue statements
a. Primaquine is used to prevent relapse of infection b. Rapidly acting blood schizonticides are used to prevent recrudescence of infection c. Proguanil is used to prevent transmission of infection d. all of the above e. none of the above
Q184. Untrue statement Like Chloroquine, Quinine
a. is a highly lipophylic weak base that concentrates in the acidic food vacuoles of plasmodia b. selective toxicity is due to the accumulation of haem c. Vd is dependent on level of parasitaemic d. has a narrow therapeutic window should be administered with caution e. none of the above
Q185. Artemisinin Derivatives, untrue statment
a. are the most rapidly acting blood schizonticides b. are active against Chloroquine resistant and multidrug resistant strains of P. falciparum c. are contemporarily approved for combination therapy d. are used in acute malaria, severe malaria, and chemoprophylaxis e. none of the above
Q186. The antibacterial spectrum of the Penicillins is determined by except
a. thiazolidine ring b. side chain c. lactam nucleus d. bacterial class e. route of administration
Q187. Which isn\'t a 3rd generation cephalosporin?
a. Ceftriaxone b. Cefuroxime c. Ceftazidime d. cefotoxime e. none of the above
Q188. Clinical situations requiring bactericidal activity include all the following except
a. Endocarditis b. Peritonitis c. bacterial meningitis d. salmonella bacteraemia in AIDS patients e. all of the above
Q189. Cancer cells are distinguished from benign tumours by all the following characteristics EXCEPT
a. Proliferation b. Dedifferentiation c. Invasiveness d. Ability to metastasize e. All of the above
a. cotrimoxazole contains a fixed combination of trimethoprim and sulphamethoxazole in proportions of 1 part to 5 parts b. cotrimoxazole is the drug of choice in P. Jiroveci infections c. both the effects and side effects of cotrimoxazole are synergistic d. all of the above e. none of the above
Q191. The aminoglycosides and the tetracyclines
a. are both bactericidal drugs that bind to 30s ribosomal subunit b. are broad spectrum protein synthesis inhibitors which are both concentrated in susceptible cells c. have similar mechanisms of resistance and similar adverse effect profiles d. all of the above e. none of the above
a. are active against both aerobes and anaerobes b. have organism dependent effects c. are active against both gram positive and gram negative bacteria d. all of the above e. none of the above
Q193. Which of these tetracyclines is least likely to modify intestinal flora
a. Chortetracycline b. Methocycline c. Doxicycline d. all of the above e. none of the above
Q194. Leprosy, which is true?
a. sulfones are non competitive antagonists of Para aminobenzoicacid b. Dapsone prevents the incorporation of mycolic acid in to bacterial call wall c. Dapsone can be used in the treatment of Chloroquine resistant malaria d. none of the above e. a & b only
Q195. Concerning the tetracyclines, wrong statement
a. differences in clinical efficacy is primarily pharmacokinetic based b. susceptible cells must concentrate the drug c. are finding increasing clinical application because of their broad spectrum antibacterial activity d. all of the above e. none of the above
Q196. Which statement is true of anthelminthics?
a. The benzimidazoles alter arachidonic acid metabolism thereby damaging parasite membranes b. Diethylcarbamazine inhibits microtubule polymerization thus arresting cell division c. Praziquantel produces flaccid paralysis d. Ivermectin induces tonic paralysis of the worm e. all of the above
Q197. Which of the following statements concerning the adverse effects of antimalarial agents is not true
a. Pruritus with chloroquine is very common, particularly in Africans b. Parenteral administration of chloroquine is associated with severe hypotension and cardiac arrest c. Quinine can stimulate uterine contractions d. Halofantrine causes prolongation of QT interval and fatal arrhythmias e. Black water fever is a complication of mefloquine therapy
a. ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity are Irreversible b. blunts the neuromuscular blockade of neuromuscular blockers c. include Streptomycin, Vancomycin and Gentamycin d. all of the above e. none of the above
Q199. Drugs that prevent early infection of susceptible cells by HIV are called
a. NRTT's b. NNRTTs c. Fusion Inhibitors d. Protease Inhibitors
Q200. Which of the following statements is UNTRUE
a. Oxarmiquine is an alternative to praziquantel for the treatment of 5 mansoni b. Niclosamide kills adult worms but not ova in tape worm infections c. Mebendazole is effective in infections with T.solium d. Piperazine is an alternative for the treatment of ascariasis e. all of the above
Q201. Vancomycin and Gentamycin, wrong statement
a. both cause renal and auditory impairment b. are both bactericidal c. both damage cell membrane d. all of the above e. none of the above
Q202. Unlike the aminoglycosides, The spectinomycin
a. has a broader antibacterial drug spectrum b. do not cause nephrotoxicity c. can be administered enterally d. all of the above e. none of the above 2008 Pharmacology
Q203. Drugs that prevent early infection of susceptible cells by HIV are called
a. NRTI\'S b. NNRTI\'S c. Fusion Inhibitors d. Protease Inhibitors e. none of the above
Q204. Cephalosporins, incorrect statement
a. 1st generation drugs are used for superficial infections b. 2nd generation drugs are used for genital tract infections c. 3rd generation are used for CNS infections d. 4th generation drugs are used empirically for nosocomial infections e. none of the above
a. are broad spectrum bacterios1stic drugs which are effective after oral administration b. are relatively non-toxic though microbial resistance to their actions are common c. are indicated in infections of the genitourinary tract d. all of the above e. none of the above
Q206. Incorrect statement; like Metronidazole, Nitrofurantoin
a. is always-bactericidal b. is rapid and completely absorbed c. colours urine d. all of the above e. none of the above
a. is due to immune reaction against dead microtularia b. Include fever, pruritus, and oedema c. treated by pre-administration of steroids d. all of the above e. none of the above
Q208. The most important factor that determines the susceptibility or resistance of microganism to antimicrobial agents
a. the concentration of the antibiotic at the site of infection b. the location of the infection c. fate of the host defenses d. factors such as high protein concentration
Q209. Cancer cells are distinguished from benign tumours by following charactersitics EXCEPT
a. eration b. Differentiation c. Effectiveness d. ability to metastasize e. all of the above
Q210. Which of the following general statements concerning the activity of antibacterial agents is true?
a. An agent characterized as \"resistant\" by at vitro during methods never responds in vivo to antimicrobial therapy b. The presence of pus, foreign bodies and low pH at the of an infection may enhance antimicrobial activity c. For infections restricted to the urinary tract, a drug concentrated in urine may be effective even if in vitro less indicate that the responsible bacterial agent is resistant d. If the concentration of an antibiotic required to inhibit or kill an agent also produces toxic effects, the responsible agent is said to be \"resistant e. c and d
Q211. The measures proposed by the centre for disease control to prevent or reduce antimicrobial resistance include all of the following except
a. Appropriate use of vaccination b. Prompt use of combination antibiotics to check on infection c. Early involvement of infectious disease experts d. Judicious use and attention to indwelling catheters e. All of the above
Q212. Which of the following is not true of the mechanism of action of bacterial resistance
a. The drug not reaching the interior of the bacterial cell could result from the absence of or mutation of porin channel b. Bacterial may have efflux pumps that the can transport drugs out of the cell c. Resistance to aminoglycosides may be due the production of an aminoglycoside modifying enzyme d. The common type of resistance to isoniazid in tuberculosis is the failure of bacterial cells to activate the prodrug e. Modification of the enzyme peptidyl transpeptidase is the commonest form of resistance to the penicillins
Q213. Drugs whose dosages need to be reduced in patients with hepatic disease include all the following except
a. Vancomycin b. Erythromycin c. Chloramphenicol d. Metronidazole e. Clindomycin
Q214. Salmonella, Brucella, Toxoplasma, Listeri and A tuberculosis are all intracellular organisms, protected from the action of antimicrobial agents that penetrate into cells poorly. Agents effective against this class of organisms include all the following except
a. Fluoroquinilones b. Rinidazole c. Trimoxazole d. Campin
Q215. Which antifungal agent has the broadest spectrum of activity
a. Ampicillin b. Flucytosine c. Azoles d. Terbinafine e. Griseofulvine
Q216. Flucytosine, correct statement
a. is contraindicated with Amphoterisin B b. side effects mammalian cells c. Fungicidal effect due to DNA synthesis inhibition d. all of the above e. none of the above
Q217. Tetracyclines, UNTRUE statement
a. They are bacteriostatic, broad spectrum agents b. The chelate divalent ions c. Dugs of choice for chlamydial infection d. All are well absorbed following oral ingestion e. Inhibit protein synthesis by binding to 30S ribosome
Q218. Which nitrogen mustard causes sterile haemorrhage cystitis?
a. Mechlorethamine b. Cyclophosphamide c. Chlorambucil d. Bulsulphan
Q219. Which isn't bactericidal drug
a. Amikacin b. Cefepine c. Rifampin d. Isoniazid e. none of the above
Q220. Penicillin G is drug of choice for all except
a. Meningococcal meningitis b. Syphilis c. Staphylococci wound sepsis d. Actinomycosis e. Tetanus
Q221. Nitrofuran and metronidazole, wrong statement
a. are usually completely absorbed from the gut b. are prodrugs c. have intermediates that color urine d. have intermediates that damage DNA e. none of the above
Q222. Antibacterial agents that act by inhibiting bacterial cell wall synthesis include all the following EXCEPT
a. Carbenicillin b. Cefotaxime c. Meropenem d. Bacitracin e. Azithromycin
Q223. About first line anti TB drugs
a. include Isoniazid, Rifampin, Ethionamide b. include Streptomycin, Dapsone, Pyrazinamide c. Isoniazid and Pyrazinamide for 9 months is effective long term treatment d. Isoniazid, Pyrazinomide, Rifampin and Streptomycin are useful for primary resistant infections e. none of the above
Q224. Concerning chemotherapy of tuberculosis
a. Isoniazid, Ethambutol, Rifampin and Pyrazinomide are in the intensive phase of treatment of disseminated b. patients with positive tuberculin test should have acid prophylactically c. complicated TB, the continuation phase consists of patent with Isoniazid, Rifampin, and Streptomycin for months d. a and b only are correct e. b and c only are correct
Q225. Leprosy chemotherapy, correct statement
a. multibacillary leprosy is treated for two years b. paucibacillary leprosy is treated for two years c. Clofazamine may be added to the regimen in multibacillary and paucibacillary forms of leprosy d. all of the above e. none of the above
Q226. Classic side effects of antineoplastic agents incorrect statement
a. Doxorubicine: significant cardiotoxicity b. Vincristine: significant neurotoxicity c. Cisplatins: significant nephrotoxicity d. all of the above e. none of the above
Q227. The drug used to cure amebiasis
a. Metronidazole b. Dilexonide furate c. Dehydracmetine d. Chloroquine e. a and b
Q228. The drug of choice in Irci
a. Praziquantel b. Pyrantel pamoate c. Albendazole d. Diethylcarbamazine
a. Prodrug metabolized by CY2C9 only (CYP2B6, with contributions from CYP3A4 and CYP2C9) b. Converted to 2-hydroxycyclophosphamide c. Converted to phosphoramide and acrolein d. all of the above e. none of the above
Q230. Which of these is true of Paramomycin sulfate
a. It is a polyene antibiotic b. Parenteral paromomycin can be used to treat visceral leishmaniasis c. Active against extraintestinal amebic infections d. All of the above e. None of the above
Q231. Biochemical markers of skeletal involvement in Bone mineral Disorders includes all EXCEPT
a. Serum levels of alkaline phosphatase b. Osteocalcin c. Urine levels of tartrate-resistant acid phosphate d. Presence of collagen breakdown products e. None of the above
Q232. Infusion-related reactions of Amphotericin B includes
a. Heart palpitations b. Increased Blood Pressure d. Photosensitivity germulus e. All of the above
Q233. Which of these oral systemic Antifungal drugs is used mostly for Muscucutaneous infections
a. Posoconazole b. Griseofulvin c. Amphotericin N d. Flucytosine e. Nystatin
Q234. Chloroquine is contraindicated in all EXCEPT
a. Pregnancy b. Visual field defects c. Psoriasis d. Porphyria e. Psychiatric disorder
Q235. All of the following describes an 8-amino quinolone except ONE?
a. Gametocidal against all human malarial parasites b. Useful in eradication of dormant liver forms of p.vivax and p.ovale c. May precipitate hemolysis G6PD deficient patients d. Once daily dosing as Chemoprophylaxis in pregnant subjects e. None of the above
a. is a vesicant b. thrombocytopenia is marked c. is an alkylsulfonate d. all of the above e. none of the above
Q237. The Mazzotti reaction, INCORRECT statement
a. it is an idiosyncratice form of drug allegy to Ivermectine and Diethylcarbamazine b. it is characterised by fever, urticaria and tender lympadenopathy c. is is usally more severe in patients with higher helminth infestation d. diagnosis is by the skin patch test none of the above e. none of the above
Q238. Nitrofuran and metronidazole wrong statement (pg 1058 of 11th edition G&G, pg 1123 of 11th edition G&G, pg 892 of 12th edition Kartzung)
a. both have complete oral bioavailability b. are both prodrugs that are activated by oxidation type of susceptible organism c. have intermediates that colour urine and damage DNA d. all of the above e. none of the above
Q239. INCORRECT statement concerning aminoglycosides and tetracyclines
a. are both bactericidal drugs that bind to 30s ribosomal subunit b. are broad spectrum protein synthesis inhibitors which are both concentrated in susceptible cells c. have similar mechanisms of resistance and similar adverse effect profiles d. all of the above e. none of the above
Q240. CORRECT statement concerning the penicillins
a. antibacterial spectrum is determined by the ẞ lactam ring b. pharmacologic activity is determined by the replacement of hydroxyl group c. activity is terminated by hydrolysis of the hydroxyl groups d. overall pharmacological acidity is determined by route of administration e. none of the above
Q241. Aminoglycosides, CORRECT statement
a. ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity are irreversible b. blunts the neuromuscular blockade of neuromuscular blockers c. elimination is independent of creatinine clearance d. have large Vo when administered intravenously e. all of the above
Q242. Piperazine, WRONG statement
a. causes flaccid paralysis through GABA b. the worms are usually passed ou whole in faeces c. it has an antagonistic action wi pyrantel pamoate d. safe during pregnancy e. none of the above
Q243. Albendazole, WRONG statement
a. is the drug of choice neurocysticercosis caused by solium and hydatid C (echinococcosis) b. is contraindicated in pregnancy c. absorption is enhanced following fatty meal d. extended usage depresses t e. none of the above
Q244. Type III reactions/Cellular structures targeted by chemotherapeutic agents include all EXCEPT
a. plasma membrane b. microtubules c. food vacuoles d. smooth muscle e. plasmids
a. Ivermectin enhances chloride ion influx leading to hyperpolarization and paralysis of the parasite b. Ivermectin is drug of choice for Strongyloides stercoralis and is implicated in the Mazzoti reaction c. Praziquantel is the drug of choice and against schistosomes acts by increasing calcium permeability causing paralysis and death of the parasite d. Complexation with clavulanic acid can be used to expand the spectrum of amoxicillin e. none of the above
Q246. Which is FALSE concerning the side effect of the aminoglycosides
a. Ototoxicity from vestibular or cochlear destruction is irreversible b. Nephrotoxicity due to drug accumulation in the proximal tubules is reversible c. Neuromuscular Blockade is potentiated by neuromuscular blockers d. They inhibit the release of acetylcholine release from vesicles and decrease membrane sensitivity to acetylcholine e. None of the above
Q247. Which of the following is CORRECT?
a. chemoprophylaxis progression of latent tubercular infection to active disease b. corticosteroids should not be routinely prescribed in tubercular patients c. Rifampicin is used for chemoprophylaxis of meningococcal and H. in fluenzae meningitis and to eradicate the carrier state d. most atypical mycobacteria are unaffected by Streptomycin e. all of the above
Q248. Artemisinin, WRONG STATEMENT
a. a sesquiterpene lactone endoperoxide b. Produces free radicals following iron catalysed cleavage of the artemisinin endoperoxide bridge in the parasite food vacuole c. standard of care for the treatment of severe falciparum malaria when given intravenousIy d. Has effect on plasmodium hepatic stages e. none of the above
Q249. INH, CORRECT statement
a. peripheral neuritis can be reversed by pyridoxine b. metabolism is influenced by pharmacogenetics c. is bactericidal for actively dividing cells d. is useful as monotherapy for prophylaxis e. all of the above
Q250. Ivermentin, INCORRET statement (pg 457 of 4th edition Tara)
a. Drug of choice for onchocerciasis b. enhances GABA receptors on the neuromuscular junction of nematodes c. Ivermectin induces tonic paralysis of the worm d. all of the above e. none of the above
Q251. A 31-year-old man complained of anorexia, nausea, gynaecomastia, and impotence. The man, recently diagnosed with pulmonary coccidioidomycosis, has been receiving an antifungal treatment for two weeks. Which of the following drugs most likely caused these adverse effects?
a. Amphotericin B b. Ketoconazole c. Flucytosine d. Griseofulvin e. Terbinafine
Q252. In which of the following statements do choloroquine and quinine differ?
a. is a highly lipophylic weak base that concentrates in the acidic food vacuoles of plasmodia b. selective toxicity is due to the accumulation of haem c. Vd is dependent on level of parasitaemia d. has a wide therapeutic window and toxicity is minimal e. none of the above
Q253. Sulphadoxine-Pyrimetha WRONG statement
a. a drug of choice in Pneumocystis jiroveci Pneumonia b. associated with Steven Johnson\'s syndrome c. First line treatment for acutetoxoplasmosis d. side effects secondary to the action of Sulphadoxine-Pyrimethamine pharmacologically impossible e. none of the above
Q254. Which of the following statements regarding ergosterol is NOT correct?
a. Ergosterol biosynthesis pathway is fungal specific b. It is also known as Provitamin D2 c. Over-expression of 14a-methylase has been implicated in resistance development in some antifungals d. Amphotericin B binds to ergosterol and alters the permeability of the cell by forming pores in the cell membrane e. none of the above
Q255. WHICH is INCORRECT concerning Artemisinin
a. a sesquiterpene lactone endoperoxide b. Produces free radicals following iron catalysed cleavage of the artemisinin endoperoxide bridge in the parasite food vacuole c. standard of care for the treatment of severe falciparum malaria when given intravenousIy d. Has effect on plasmodium hepatic stages e. none of the above
Q256. Which of these is NOT true of Nystatin
a. Useful in esophageal candidiasis b. polyene macrolide c. Safe for oral, topical and parenteral d. Can be used in children under 6 years e. Binds to ergosterol, a component of fungal cell membrane
Q257. TRUE concerning Amphotericin B on human cholesterol molecule
a. Has lower affinity compared to ergosterol b. Actions are dissimilar to its effect with ergosterol c. Broad Spectrum Fungicidal molecule d. Nephrotoxicity maybe a dose dependent side effect e. Reserved for severe system infection
Q258. TRUE statement concerning Potential for non-targeted antifungal agents
a. Leads to Adverse effect b. human enzymes are less affected than the fungal enzymes c. human drug-metabolizing cytochrome P450 enzymes by azoles is an example d. All of the above e. None of the above
Q259. INCORRECT concerning Amphoterisin B and Flucytosine
a. it is the combination of choice in fungal meningocaemia where a defective cell membrane promotes flucytosine transport b. a shock-like fall in blood pressure may occur during Amphoterisin B IV infusion c. Flucytosine works at the nucleus level where its converted into 5-fluorouracil and then to other active metabolites that inhibit fungal RNA and DNA synthesis while Amphoterisin B causes impairment of the normal permeability of fungal cell membrane d. Amphotericin B toxicity seems to be increased with the use of lipid formulations of the drug e. none of the above
Q260. INCORRECT Concerning the Azoles
a. their antifungal action is inhibition of conversion of lanosterol to ergosterol b. the triazoles are more effective and have a wider antifungal spectrum c. Fluconazole is the only azole known to cross the blood brain barrier d. Ketoconazole is the very toxic so systemic administration is rare e. none of the above
Q261. A 54-year-old man is in the UPTH because of a prostatectomy performed 4 days before. He is wearing a urinary catheter and is currently treated with a of combination broad-spectrum antibiotics. The patient has been suffering from chronic renal insufficiency for the past two years. Two recent urinalysis show many budding yeasts and cultures
a. Amphotericin B b. Fluconazole c. Griseofulvin d. Nystatin e. None of the above
Q262. A 5-year-old was brought to the UPTH by her step father because she has several small hairless patches on her scalp. Upon close physical examination, patches look like black dots on the skin surface. Microscopic examination reveals a dense sheath of spores around the hair. Which of the following drugs given orally would be an appropriate treatment for this patient?
a. Acyclovir b. Metronidazole c. Griseofulvin d. Amphotericin B e. Flucytosine
Q263. Azoles, CORRECT statement
a. imidazoles are fungistastic while triazoles are fungicidal b. triazoles and imidazoles influence fungal cyt P450 enzymes to the same extent c. imidazoles are used only for superficial infections while triazoles are used for only systemic infection d. all of the above e. none of the above
Q264. INCORRECT statement concerning antimalarial agents
a. the recommended course of action treating severe neuropsychiatric effects induced by mefloquine discontinue therapy b. the toxic effects of Quinine are dose - dependent c. Primaquine is associated with causing an acute hemolytic reaction in patients with G6PD deficiency d. all of the above e. none of the above 48 Artemisinin, WRONG statement
Q265. Chloroquine, WRONG statement [al is a rapidly acting blood schizonticide that inhibits haeme polymerization in the parasite
b. it causes haemolysis especially in patients with G6PD c. the retinal toxicity of chloroquine is believed to be due to its interaction with melanin in the retinal pigment epithelium d. causes intense pruritus especially in blacks because of skin melanin content e. none of the above
a. Primaquine is the only agent the produces radical cure by preventing relapse through elimination of dormant hypnozoites b. Proguanil is used in malaria prophylaxis especially in pregnant women who are already on folate supplementation c. Pyrimethamine is administered weekly for malaria prophylaxis in children d. Folate supplementation is strongly advised for patients on primaquine, proguanil of pyrimethamine e. none of the above
Q267. Which of the following statements Correctly pair the antifungal drugs with their likely mechanisms of action?
a. Amphotericin B - inhibits thymidylate synthetase b. Flucytosine - inhibits fungal mycolic acid synthesis c. Miconazole-inhibits DNA dependent RNA polymerase d. Nystatin-inhibits ergosterol synthesis e. none of the above
Q268. Concerning bacteríal resistance to antibiotics, which is UNTRUE
a. stems primarily from antibiotic abuse b. An organism is considered resistant to drug bacterial inhibitory concentration exceeds that which can be achieved safely in vivo c. The least important factor that determines resistance of microorganisms to antimicrobial agents is concentration of the antibiotic at the site of infection d. If the concentration of an antibiotic required to inhibit or kill an agent also produces toxic effects, the responsible agent is said to be resistant e. For infections restricted to the urinary tract, a drug concentrated in urine may be effective even if in vitro tests indicate that the responsible bacterial agent is resistant
Q269. Chloroquine, WRONG statement
a. implicated in the development of development Bull\'s eye maculopathy b. causes less pruritus than amodiaquine c. parenteral administration chloroquine is assoclated with severe hypotension and cardiac arrest d. resistance can be by drug efflux, reduced accumulatlon in parasite or mutations in chloroquine transporter e. none of the above
Q270. Which of the following adverse effects is INCORRECT
a. cisplatin: myelosuppression b. cyclophosphamide: haemorrhagic cystitis c. doxorubicin: cardiotoxicity d. bleomycin: pulmonary fibrosis e. vincristine: neurotoxicity
Q271. Which of the following is present in quinine toxicity but not in reactions of cinchonism
a. tinnitus b. blurred vision c. dizzines d. hypoglycaemia e. nausea
Q272. Artemisinin derivatives, WRONG statement
a. do not interfere with plasmodial haemoglobin metabolism to any extent b. are poor agents for prevention of relapse of infection c. effects are independent of plasmodia concentration d. all of the above e. none of the above
Q273. All of the following questions concerning the azole antifungal drugs are correct EXCEPT
a. Some of these agents inhibit cytochrome P450 enzymes and cause the plasma concentration of certain Co-administered drugs to build up b. Ketoconazole has a greater likelihood of disrupting the synthesis of sex steroids than either itraconazole or fluconazole c. Both ketoconazole and itraconazole require gastric acidity for adequate oral absorption d. In the clinical setting, itraconazole and fluconazole are gradually being replaced by ketoconazole e. none of the above
Q274. What is the main reason for with of Atovaquone combination Proguanil
a. to reduce the dosage of atovaquone b. to potentiate the action of atovaquone and prevent resistance c. to enhance the absorption of atovaquone d. to provide coverage against liver-stage parasites e. to prevent gastrointestinal side effects of atovaquone