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General and Autonomic Nervous System Pharmacology

Study Mode • 200 Questions

Q1.

Which of the following is false concerning the volume of distribution of a drug?

Q2.

Which of the following statements concerning the subcutaneous route of administration is TRUE

Q3.

Which of the following UNTRUE about weak electrolytes and the influence of pH?

Q4.

Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning partial agonists?

Q5.

Which of the following is UNTRUE about the parenteral route of administration?

Q6.

Which of the following statements concerning drug absorption and bioavailability is wrong

Q7.

The rate at which a drug penetrates a biologic membrane, by passive diffusion

Q8.

Routes of parenteral administration include all except

Q9.

Which is UNTRUE concerning drug antagonism?

Q10.

Drug Interactions are usually due to all EXCEPT? [al differential binding to plasma proteins

Q11.

Which is TRUE concerning drug antagonism?

Q12.

Drug Interactions result from all the following EXCEPT [al differential binding to plasma proteins

Q13.

Which is INCORRECT?

Q14.

Which of the following statements is not true concerning plasma protein binding? ·

Q15.

Which of the following Statements the concerning distribution of drugs from the blood into the CNS is true?

Q16.

The following adverse effects (side effects) are commonly associated with cholinergic antagonists EXCEPT:

Q17.

UNTRUE Statements concerning the excretion of drug

Q18.

Direct effects of muscarinic receptor activation include all EXCEPT

Q19.

Which of the following statements about adrenergic transmission is UNTRUE? 5

Q20.

Concerning open angle glaucoma, which of the following is correct statement

Q21.

Concerning carbamate anticholinesterases

Q22.

Myasthenia gravis 6

Q23.

Which is correct about open angle glaucoma?

Q24.

Calculate the half-life Time Conc 2 hours. 100ug/ml 6 hours. 25ug/ml 10 hours. 6.25ug/ml 14 hours 1.56ug/ml

Q25.

Pick out the appropriate alimentary mode of administration where passage through liver is eliminated

Q26.

If the volume of distribution of a drug is 150L, which statement best describes it?

Q27.

All the following statement are true except

Q28.

Which of the following statements is/are true for a drug whose elimination from plasma shows 1st order kinetics

Q29.

Which of the following will occur with an antagonist binding to a receptor

Q30.

A patient was given a drug A with ED50 of 1mg/kg for the reduction of hypertension. If the drug B with ED50 of 3mg/kg was given and has the same response, which of the following is/are correct

Q31.

What is the 1/2 life of a drug whose volume of distribution is 21.0L and plasma clearance is 60.7ml/min

Q32.

A drug has a half life of 12 hours. It was given by an oral route every 12 hours. At what time would the drug achieve a steady state

Q33.

Example of ligand-gated receptor

Q34.

Drug with half life of 12hours is taken as a 10mg pill by oral admin once every 12hours. The fluctuation that exists once steady state is achieved;

Q35.

regarding termination of drug action

Q36.

Regarding efficacy and potency of a drug all are true except

Q37.

Pilocarpine is most commonly used as

Q38.

All of the following can result from poisoning of an organophosphate nerve gas or insecticide EXCEPT

Q39.

Which of the following is not a primary effect of stimulating muscarinice M receptor

Q40.

Which of the following is not a result of excessive cholinergic stimulation as would be seen with a nerve agent or organophosphosphats poisoning

Q41.

Which of the following is not a mixes sympatomimmetic agent

Q42.

Adrenaline is added to a local anaesthetic because

Q43.

Organanophosphate nerve gas such as Sarin and insecticide such as Malathion produce toxic effect in humans via

Q44.

Prior to an operation to remove a pheochromocytoma (neuroendocrine tumor of the medulla 16 of the adrenal glands), which of the following should be given to the patient?

Q45.

Which of the following will be increased in intracellular concentration due to second messenger IP3?

Q46.

When injected intravenously, a certain dose of epinephrine was seen to cause a marked vasoconstrictive effect. Drug Y was added to the same dose of epinephrine, and was seen to cause general vasodilation. The identity of Drug Y could be

Q47.

Which of the following is true of the effect of botulinum toxin

Q48.

Constriction of iris sphincter by pilocarpine

Q49.

Disulfiram is a drug used to treat alcoholism. What effect does this drug have

Q50.

Tachyphylaxis refers to which of the following?

Q51.

Which of these is not true about Beta-2 stimulation?

Q52.

Myasthenia gravis

Q53.

All of the following statements concerning physostigmine and neostigmine are true EXCEPT

Q54.

B adrenergic receptor antagonists may lower blood pressure by other mechanism EXCEPT

Q55.

B2 agonists and methylxanthines

Q56.

B2 agonists, UNTRUE statement

Q57.

ẞ1 receptors produce increased

Q58.

Which of the following best describes an agonist

Q59.

A competitive antagonist affects an agonist's\-\-\-\-\-\--and a non competitive antagonist affects the agonist's

Q60.

Drug biotransformation phase I makes drugs \_\_\_\_ polar for metabolism and phase II makes drugs \_\_\_\_ polar for excretion

Q61.

Which of the following is NOT a phase II substrate?

Q62.

Which of the following reactions is phase II and NOT phase I?

Q63.

Which of the following locations is the most likely for finding a free, unaltered drug? 28

Q64.

Most drugs are active in their \_\_\_\_ form and inactive in their \_\_\_\_ form

Q65.

Epithelial cells are connected by \_\_\_\_, which are tough to cross and materials often must pass through the cells. Endothelial cells of blood vessels are connected by \_\_\_\_, which proteins cannot cross but smaller drugs (MW 200-500) can

Q66.

If a patient misses three doses of their daily drug, which of the following (in general) is the best solution?

Q67.

The consequences of irrational drug usage include all the following EXCEPT

Q68.

Which of the following statements about prescription writing is WRONG

Q69.

A good prescription should include the following EXCEPT

Q70.

Irrational drug abuse includes the following EXCEPT

Q71.

Non selective B adrenergic blockers have the following disadvantages EXCEPT

Q72.

At what stage of adrenergic synthesis does movement into storage vesicles occur?

Q73.

Which of the following is incorrect concerning methyldopa?

Q74.

COMT, INCORRECT STATEMENT: 31

Q75.

MOA, INCORRECT statement

Q76.

Blocks the transport of dopamine into storage vesicles

Q77.

Displaces noradrenalin from storage vesicles Reserpine

Q78.

Blocks release of noradrenalin from storage vesicles

Q79.

Drug-drug Interactions result from all the following EXCEPT?

Q80.

Concerning peripheral autonomic nerves, all the following are untrue except

Q81.

Which of the following general statements on autonomic nervous system is UNTRUE

Q82.

Neurotransmission can be inhibited by the following substance except 33

Q83.

Evidence that a chemical substance is a neurotransmitter includes all EXCEPT

Q84.

Which of the following statements is correct about myasthenia gravis

Q85.

Which of the following concerning quaternary carbamate anticholinesterase is UNTRUE

Q86.

Which of the following best describes reason of applying physostigmine to the eye

Q87.

Which of the following general statements concerning adrenergic transmission is UNTRUE

Q88.

Neuromuscular blockers, TRUE statement

Q89.

Neuromuscular blockers TRUE statement

Q90.

Inverse agonists, CORRECT statement

Q91.

Drug metabolism, WRONG statement

Q92.

Which of the following statements about adrenergic transmission is UNTRUE?

Q93.

About drug efficacy

Q94.

Which statement concerning the biotransformation of drugs is UNTRUE?

Q95.

Tachyphylaxis is 40

Q96.

Which of the following is an example of physiologic antagonism?

Q97.

Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE concerning plasma protein binding?

Q98.

Concerning plasma protein drug binding, INCORRECT statement is?

Q99.

Which of the following statements concerning the subcutaneous route of administration is FALSE?

Q100.

Which of the following is UNTRUE about weak electrolytes and the influence of pH?

Q101.

Which of the following Statements concerning distribution of drugs from the blood into the CNS is true?

Q102.

Which of the following is TRUE concerning the volume of distribution of a drug?

Q103.

Which of the following statements concerning the subcutaneous route of administration is UNTRUE

Q104.

Which of the following UNTRUE about weak electrolytes and the influence of pH?

Q105.

Which of the following statements is UNTRUE concerning partial agonists?

Q106.

Competitive neuromuscular blockers, TRUE statement

Q107.

These are all uses of anticholinergic agents EXCEPT

Q108.

Like the barbiturates, the benzodiazepines

Q109.

Increased benzodiazepine doses

Q110.

Unlike benzodiazepines, barbiturates

Q111.

Benzodiazepines, wrong statement

Q112.

Which of the following is untrue of tocolytics?

Q113.

Concerning B-adrenergic agonists 58

Q114.

The nature of the phenothazine side chain determines their \-\-\--Is a CNS question(ignore)

Q115.

A compound is found to increase the heart rate but has no effect on the eye. It also caused a significant relaxation of the bronchial muscle. This compound would be categorized as

Q116.

These are all uses of anticholinergic agents EXCEPT 66

Q117.

True Statement about drug efficacy

Q118.

Muscle weakness

Q119.

The rate-limiting step in the biosynthesis of norepinephrine involves the enzyme

Q120.

Your pharmacology laboratory has been given a new compound for screening. It is found to increase the heart rate but has no effect on the eye. It also caused a significant reduction in diastolic blood pressure as well as relaxation of the bronchial muscle. This compound would be categorized as

Q121.

Recent investigation has demonstrated the existence of both presynaptic alpha receptors (à2) and postsynaptic alpha receptors (à1). All of the following statements concerning these alpha receptors are true EXCEPT

Q122.

Your pharmacology laboratory has been given an unknown compound for screening. It is found to contract the sphincter muscle of the eye, decrease the heart rate, increase bronchial gland secretions and causes sweating. You would classify this compound as (an)

Q123.

Your pharmacology laboratory has received a new compound for screening. Initial experimentation with the compound yields the following findings: It causes contraction of the detrusor muscle of the urinary bladder, contraction of the sphincter muscle of the iris, and secretion of lacrimal glands. With this information you might initially classify the compound as a (an)

Q124.

All of the following drugs are examples of direct acting beta agonists EXCEPT

Q125.

Your pharmacology laboratory has a new compound for screening. It is found to cause tachycardia, mydriasis, urinary retention and cycloplegia. You would classify this agent as a (an)

Q126.

The most important mechanism for terminating the activity of released norepinephrine from the presynaptic terminal

Q127.

A pharmacology laboratory is given a new compound for screening. This drug causes mydriasis and bradycardia, and causes pain and difficulty in micturition. You would classify this compound as a (an)

Q128.

The arterioles are predominantly under parasympathetic control

Q129.

All of the following classes of drugs can demonstrate anticholinergic side effects EXCEPT

Q130.

The primary function of phase 1 metabolism is to make the drug 82

Q131.

The primary function of Phase 1 metabolism is to make the drug

Q132.

Which isn\'t a phase of the dose response curve

Q133.

Which of the following has affinity but lack intrinsic activity?

Q134.

When progressive increases in dosage is required to maintain the same effects of a drug

Q135.

The most important determination of pharmacokinetic profile of a drug is its

Q136.

Drugs with receptor mediated actions do not have

Q137.

What can influence the volume of distribution of an administered drug

Q138.

Which has zero efficacy?

Q139.

Which isn\'t a component of pharmacokinetics

Q140.

The effects of two drugs administered together far exceeds their summative effects

Q141.

Drug interactions are usually due to all EXCEPT

Q142.

Routes of parenteral administration include all except

Q143.

Which is TRUE concerning drug antagonism?

Q144.

Drug elimination

Q145.

Centrally acting a2agonist

Q146.

Which of the following agonist isn\'t indirect or mixed acting

Q147.

Which is mixed acting

Q148.

Selective ẞ2 agonists

Q149.

The indications for anticholinergics include all the following EXCEPT

Q150.

Ganglion blockers are obsolete agents primarily because

Q151.

Neuromuscular blockers

Q152.

Which acts at nicotinic receptors

Q153.

Which has only peripheral effects?

Q154.

Parasympatholytics generally have a wide therapeutic margin, rarely however, life threatening poisoning with atropine may occur and it is characterized by the following EXCEPT

Q155.

The first step of acetylcholine breakdown

Q156.

Which isn\'t stage of neurohumoral transmission

Q157.

Which isn\'t a competitive blocker

Q158.

Muscarinic receptors are found

Q159.

Which is a partial agonist

Q160.

Which blocker isn\'t cardioselective?

Q161.

ẞ1 receptors are located

Q162.

a2 receptors are located

Q163.

B2 receptors are located

Q164.

ẞ2 receptors produce increased

Q165.

a1 receptors produce

Q166.

a2 receptors produce

Q167.

Concerning anticholinesterases

Q168.

Myasthenia gravis

Q169.

Neuromuscular blockers, TRUE statement

Q170.

Which of the following statements concern anticholinesterase agents is UNTRUE?

Q171.

Direct effects of muscarinic receptor activation include all EXCEPT

Q172.

The major antimuscarinic drug used in the treatment of Parkinson\'s disease include all EXCEPT

Q173.

Which is correct about open angle glaucoma? 104

Q174.

The primary function of phase 1 metabolism is to make the drug

Q175.

Provides the bulk of tablets

Q176.

Which acts at nicotinic receptors 118

Q177.

Which agents would not have important CNS beneficial and side effects

Q178.

Which agents would have the lowest volume of distribution

Q179.

The thoracolumbar outflow is 120

Q180.

ẞ1 receptors are located 122

Q181.

a2 receptors are located

Q182.

a2 receptors 124

Q183.

Concerning diuretics, which of the following is UNTRUE?

Q184.

Frequent indication for osmotic diuretics include all the following EXCEPT

Q185.

Which of the following statements is not true concerning plasma protein binding? · 142

Q186.

Which of the following is UNTRUE about the parenteral route of administration?

Q187.

Concerning B-adrenergic agonists

Q188.

The indications for anticholinergics include all the following EXCEPT 148

Q189.

You are an Emergency Department Registrar. At 2am a patient presents with a systolic BP of less than 100. The left ventricular filling pressure of more than 20mmHG and a cardiac output of less than 2.5L/min. In this patient what is your first line of treatment?

Q190.

Which does not cause vasoconstriction

Q191.

Regarding neurotransmitters in the brain

Q192.

Beta-Blockers i) Regarding adrenoceptor antagonists, which of the following is 'selective'?

Q193.

Inhaled Anticholinergic Drugs i) The Drug Ipratropium (Atrovent)

Q194.

Cholinergic Drugs i) Regarding the acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (e.g. physiostigmine, neostigmine) which of the following is TRUE?

Q195.

Anticholinergic Drugs 2 i) Benztropine causes

Q196.

Drugs and the Eye i) Regarding the treatments for glaucoma, which INCREASES aqueous outflow?

Q197.

Depolarsiing Muscle Relaxants i) Concerning the IV drug Suxamethonium, which is TRUE?

Q198.

effects of Psychiatric Medications i) Regarding Amitryptiline (Tricyclic Antidepressant) which are NOT effects

Q199.

Muscle Relaxants i) Regarding non-depolarising muscle relaxants

Q200.

Prazosin; which is correct